Year 7 Science | Practice mode

Practice

216 questions across 9 topics, drawn from every Practice and Challenge block in Year 7 science. Filter by topic or level, cap the count, shuffle, and start the timer when you want to time a session.

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Classifying living things

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. List the seven processes that all living things do (MRS GREN). (show answer)
    Answer
    Movement, Respiration, Sensitivity, Growth, Reproduction, Excretion, Nutrition.
  2. 2. Give the Linnaean levels in order from broadest to narrowest. (show answer)
    Answer
    Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.
  3. 3. Name the five kingdoms used in most school texts. (show answer)
    Answer
    Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista, Monera (Bacteria).
  4. 4. Write the scientific name of the human species, correctly formatted. (show answer)
    Answer
    Homo sapiens (genus capitalised, species lowercase, both italicised).
  5. 5. Which two animals are more closely related: two organisms in the same family, or two in the same class? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    Two organisms in the same family — family is a narrower group than class, so members are more closely related.
  6. 6. What is a dichotomous key? (show answer)
    Answer
    A tool for identifying organisms by answering a series of either-or questions about observable features.
  7. 7. Give one example each of (a) an organism in kingdom Fungi, (b) an organism in kingdom Protista. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) A mushroom, yeast or bread mould. (b) An amoeba, paramecium or algae.
  8. 8. Explain why colour is usually a poor feature for a classification key. (show answer)
    Answer
    Colour varies with age, sex, season, and lighting, and is often subjective — so different users classify the same organism differently.
  9. 9. The binomial name of the domestic cat is Felis catus. What is the genus? What is the species name? (show answer)
    Answer
    Genus: Felis. Species name: catus.
  10. 10. Is a candle flame alive? Justify using MRS GREN. (show answer)
    Answer
    No. A flame releases energy and moves but does not grow (in the biological sense), reproduce, excrete waste, or sense its environment. It fails most of MRS GREN.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. A new organism has cells with a nucleus, is single-celled, and cannot make its own food. Which kingdom does it probably belong to? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Kingdom Protista — single-celled eukaryotes (nucleus present) that cannot photosynthesise fit the protist description best.
  2. 2. Two lizards look identical but cannot interbreed. Are they the same species? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    No. The standard biological species definition requires that members can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Looking identical is not enough.
  3. 3. Linnaeus grouped whales with mammals, not fish, even though whales live in water. What features would have led him to this decision? (show answer)
    Answer
    Whales have fur (at least as embryos), produce milk, breathe air through lungs, and give birth to live young — all mammal features. Fish have gills, scales and lay eggs.
  4. 4. A student writes homo Sapiens. Give two corrections. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) Genus must be capitalised: Homo. (ii) Both words must be italicised (or underlined when handwritten).
  5. 5. Explain why viruses are controversial in biology classification. (show answer)
    Answer
    Viruses reproduce but only inside a host, and they cannot respire, grow, take in nutrition or excrete on their own. They fail most MRS GREN tests, so most biologists classify them as non-living.
  6. 6. Why does a good dichotomous key use either-or questions rather than three-way splits? (show answer)
    Answer
    Either-or keeps each step unambiguous — there is exactly one correct branch. Three-way splits often overlap and confuse the user.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. Build a three-step dichotomous key to separate: goldfish, frog, sparrow, wombat. (show answer)
    Answer
    Example key. Step 1: lives entirely in water? Yes → goldfish. No → step 2. Step 2: has feathers? Yes → sparrow. No → step 3. Step 3: has fur? Yes → wombat. No → frog.
  2. 2. A field guide says: "Step 1: feathers present — go to 2; no feathers — go to 5." What kingdom is the guide restricted to at step 2? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Kingdom Animalia — only animals have feathers (specifically birds).
  3. 3. Quarantine officers find an unknown insect in a shipping container. Describe the sequence of checks they would make, and why correct identification matters. (show answer)
    Answer
    Officers check: number of legs, wings, antennae, body segmentation, mouthparts, size. Correct identification decides whether the insect is a biosecurity threat (e.g. a fruit fly vs a harmless native), whether the cargo is destroyed or released, and the cost to agriculture.
  4. 4. Design a feature-based table (three features, five organisms) that would allow a friend to identify each organism uniquely from the table alone. (show answer)
    Answer
    Accept any correct table where each organism has a unique combination of the three feature values. Example features: "has feathers", "lives in water", "larger than 50 cm".

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Scientists sometimes reclassify organisms when new DNA evidence emerges (e.g. the giant panda was moved between families twice). Explain why this is a strength of science, not a weakness. (show answer)
    Answer
    Science changes its mind when better evidence arrives — this self-correcting property is what makes it reliable over time. Classifications based on DNA reflect true evolutionary relationships more accurately than guesses from appearance.
  2. 2. The platypus has fur, lays eggs, and produces milk. Explain how this single species caused biologists to re-examine the definition of a mammal, and why it is still grouped with mammals. (show answer)
    Answer
    Before the platypus, "mammal = gives birth to live young" was assumed. The platypus showed that milk production is the better defining feature. It is still a mammal because it has fur, a four-chambered heart, and produces milk; monotremes are a group of egg-laying mammals.
  3. 3. Design a dichotomous key to distinguish six Australian animals: emu, echidna, koala, red kangaroo, saltwater crocodile, clownfish. Use only features a ranger could check from observation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Example key. Step 1: lives entirely in water? Yes → crocodile or clownfish. No → step 2. Step 2 (for aquatic): scales and fins? Yes → clownfish. No → saltwater crocodile. Step 2 (for land): feathers? Yes → emu. No → step 3. Step 3: has a pouch and hops? Yes → red kangaroo. No → step 4. Step 4: has spines? Yes → echidna. No → koala.
  4. 4. A taxonomist finds an organism made of a single cell with no nucleus, able to photosynthesise. Using a key, work out which kingdom it belongs to and which two features were critical. (show answer)
    Answer
    No nucleus → Monera (Bacteria). Photosynthesises → specifically a cyanobacterium. Critical features: absence of a nucleus and presence of chlorophyll.

Ecosystems, food webs & energy flow

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. Define: habitat, population, community, ecosystem. (show answer)
    Answer
    Habitat: where an organism lives. Population: all individuals of one species in an area. Community: all populations living together. Ecosystem: community plus abiotic environment.
  2. 2. Give two biotic and two abiotic factors in a pond. (show answer)
    Answer
    Biotic (pond): fish, algae, frogs, insects. Abiotic: water, temperature, light, dissolved oxygen, pH.
  3. 3. What is a producer? Give two examples. (show answer)
    Answer
    A producer makes its own food from sunlight or chemicals. Examples: grass, algae, gum tree.
  4. 4. What does a decomposer do? Name one. (show answer)
    Answer
    Decomposers break down dead organic matter and return nutrients to the soil. Examples: fungi, bacteria, earthworms.
  5. 5. In the chain grass → rabbit → fox, identify the producer, primary consumer and secondary consumer. (show answer)
    Answer
    Producer: grass. Primary consumer: rabbit. Secondary consumer: fox.
  6. 6. In a food web diagram, what does an arrow between two organisms mean? (show answer)
    Answer
    The arrow shows the direction energy flows — from the food to the feeder (prey to predator).
  7. 7. State the 10% rule. (show answer)
    Answer
    About 10% of the energy at one trophic level is transferred to the next; 90% is lost mostly as heat.
  8. 8. Why are food chains rarely longer than 4 or 5 links? (show answer)
    Answer
    Energy decreases by roughly 90% each link, so after 4 or 5 steps there is not enough to support another level.
  9. 9. Name three biotic and three abiotic factors that affect an Australian forest. (show answer)
    Answer
    Biotic: trees, birds, insects. Abiotic: sunlight, rainfall, temperature, soil type.
  10. 10. Give one example of an introduced species causing harm to an Australian ecosystem. (show answer)
    Answer
    Examples: cane toads, rabbits, foxes, European carp, lantana.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. An ecosystem has 5000 kg of grass. Using the 10% rule, estimate the mass of grasshoppers, lizards, and eagles it can support. (show answer)
    Answer
    Grasshoppers: 500500 kg. Lizards: 5050 kg. Eagles: 55 kg.
  2. 2. Explain why there are usually more producers than top predators in any ecosystem. (show answer)
    Answer
    Because only about 10% of energy transfers up each level, the total biomass shrinks by 90% per step. Top predators have very little energy to share.
  3. 3. A farmer sprays pesticide that kills insects. Predict two knock-on effects on birds that eat insects. (show answer)
    Answer
    Birds lose insect food → population drops. Pesticide may also accumulate in birds' bodies through the insects they do eat, causing further harm (bioaccumulation).
  4. 4. Explain why drawing arrows the wrong way round in a food web changes its meaning. (show answer)
    Answer
    Arrows represent energy flow from prey to predator. Reversed arrows would say the predator feeds the prey, which is biologically false and would mislead anyone trying to predict effects of change.
  5. 5. Why can an ecosystem recover from a short drought but rarely from the loss of a keystone species? (show answer)
    Answer
    Short droughts stress organisms but do not remove species. A keystone species — one whose role disproportionately affects the web — removes many connections at once, so recovery may be impossible without reintroduction.
  6. 6. Decomposers are sometimes called the "recyclers" of an ecosystem. Explain what they recycle and why the ecosystem would fail without them. (show answer)
    Answer
    They recycle nutrients (carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus) locked in dead matter back into the soil for producers. Without them, dead material would pile up, nutrients would be trapped, and producers would starve.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. Draw a food web for a suburban backyard using at least 6 organisms, with arrows in the correct direction. (show answer)
    Answer
    Accept any web with at least 6 organisms and arrows pointing prey → predator. Example: grass → cricket → magpie → cat; grass → snail → magpie; leaves → possum.
  2. 2. A river's water temperature rises 4°C due to a nearby power station. List two abiotic changes and two likely biotic effects. (show answer)
    Answer
    Abiotic: warmer water holds less dissolved oxygen; evaporation increases. Biotic: cold-water fish die or migrate; algae grow faster, possibly causing blooms.
  3. 3. An island has rabbits, grass, foxes and eagles. Foxes are removed for hunting. Predict in order the short-term and long-term effects. (show answer)
    Answer
    Short term: rabbit population surges. Mid term: grass overgrazed, soil erosion, eagles switch to other prey. Long term: grass dies back, rabbits crash from starvation, whole system destabilised.
  4. 4. Use the 10% rule to explain why feeding people directly with grain is more energy-efficient than feeding grain to cattle and then eating beef. (show answer)
    Answer
    90% of energy is lost at each trophic step. Feeding grain to cattle first loses that 90% before it reaches humans, so only a small fraction of the original grain's energy becomes beef.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A lake is "eutrophic" — excess fertiliser from farms caused an algal bloom. Explain step by step why the fish later died, even though algae are producers and increased food should help the ecosystem. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fertiliser runoff → algal bloom → algae die and are decomposed → bacteria using the dead algae consume dissolved oxygen → oxygen level in water crashes → fish suffocate. Extra food at the bottom does not help if decomposition strips the oxygen fish need.
  2. 2. Design a careful experiment to test whether an introduced species of fish reduces native fish numbers in a pond, identifying independent, dependent and controlled variables. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: presence/absence of introduced fish. DV: native fish population (count per week). Controlled: pond size, water temperature, food added, predators excluded, duration. Use replicate ponds with and without the introduced species; compare native numbers over time.
  3. 3. Bioaccumulation: mercury concentrates up a food chain. If small fish hold 0.1 mg/kg, larger fish that eat 10 of them hold roughly 1 mg/kg, and top predators that eat 10 of those hold roughly 10 mg/kg. Explain using the 10% rule why energy thins but toxins concentrate. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each link transfers only about 10% of the energy (producing the pyramid), but toxins like mercury are not broken down — they are stored in body tissue. A predator eats many prey, so it collects all their mercury, multiplying the concentration even as the energy thins.
  4. 4. A forest loses all its decomposers overnight. Describe the ecosystem after one year, after ten years, and after a hundred years. (show answer)
    Answer
    After 1 year: dead plant and animal matter accumulates, nutrient cycling stops, soil becomes impoverished. After 10 years: producers decline from lack of nutrients, herbivores starve, chains collapse upward. After 100 years: the forest is gone, replaced at best by pioneer species that can tolerate nutrient-poor soil; long term, some decomposition may restart from airborne microbes.

Particle theory & states of matter

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. State the five statements of the particle model. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) All matter is made of tiny particles. (ii) Particles are in constant motion. (iii) Particles have forces of attraction between them. (iv) Particles have spaces between them. (v) Higher temperature means faster motion.
  2. 2. Describe the spacing and motion of particles in a solid, liquid and gas. (show answer)
    Answer
    Solid: particles touching, arranged regularly, vibrating on the spot. Liquid: particles touching, disordered, sliding past. Gas: particles far apart, moving fast and randomly.
  3. 3. Name the state change for each: (a) solid → liquid, (b) gas → liquid, (c) solid → gas directly. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Melting. (b) Condensation. (c) Sublimation.
  4. 4. What does density measure? Give its formula. (show answer)
    Answer
    Density is mass per unit volume. Formula: ρ=m/V\rho = m/V.
  5. 5. A block has mass 120120 g and volume 4040 cm3^3. Find its density. (show answer)
    Answer
    ρ=120/40=3.0\rho = 120/40 = 3.0 g/cm3^3.
  6. 6. Water has density 1.01.0 g/cm3^3. Will a substance with density 0.80.8 g/cm3^3 float or sink in water? (show answer)
    Answer
    Float — it is less dense than water.
  7. 7. Define diffusion. Give one everyday example. (show answer)
    Answer
    Diffusion is the spreading of particles from high to low concentration. Example: the smell of perfume spreading through a room.
  8. 8. Why does a balloon shrink in a freezer? (show answer)
    Answer
    Cooling slows the gas particles, reducing collisions with the wall. Outside pressure pushes the balloon inward until the pressures balance.
  9. 9. Why does a bridge have expansion joints? (show answer)
    Answer
    Expansion joints allow the bridge materials to expand in heat and contract in cold without cracking.
  10. 10. A liquid turns to gas below its boiling point. What is this process called? (show answer)
    Answer
    Evaporation.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain, using the particle model, why gases can be compressed but liquids cannot. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gases have large spaces between particles that can be squeezed closer. Liquid particles are already touching, so there is almost no space left to compress.
  2. 2. Explain why heat added during melting does not raise the temperature. (show answer)
    Answer
    During melting, the heat energy goes into breaking the forces holding the solid lattice, rearranging particles rather than speeding them up. Speed — and therefore temperature — stays constant.
  3. 3. A drop of food colouring added to still water spreads out over hours. Explain using particle motion. (show answer)
    Answer
    Dye particles collide randomly with water particles, gradually spreading from the crowded area into less crowded water until evenly distributed.
  4. 4. Why does hot air rise? Link to density. (show answer)
    Answer
    Heated air particles move faster and spread apart, so hot air has lower density than the cooler air around it. Denser cool air sinks beneath, pushing hot air up.
  5. 5. A student says "when steel is heated, its atoms get larger." Correct this statement using the particle model. (show answer)
    Answer
    Atoms do not change size. Heating makes them vibrate more, increasing the average spacing between them, which makes the whole object larger.
  6. 6. Using the particle model, explain why a gas fills its container completely while a liquid does not. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gas particles move fast with large spaces and negligible attractive forces, so they spread to fill any container. Liquid particles still attract each other, so they stay together at the bottom while taking the container's shape.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. A metal cube has side 33 cm and mass 216216 g. Find the density. Is it likely aluminium (2.72.7 g/cm3^3) or iron (7.97.9 g/cm3^3)? (show answer)
    Answer
    Volume = 33=273^3 = 27 cm3^3. Density = 216/27=8.0216/27 = 8.0 g/cm3^3. Close to iron (7.97.9 g/cm3^3), not aluminium.
  2. 2. A liquid of mass 500500 g has volume 625625 mL. Find its density in g/cm3^3 (recall 11 mL =1=1 cm3^3). Would it float or sink on water? (show answer)
    Answer
    Density = 500/625=0.8500/625 = 0.8 g/cm3^3. Less dense than water, so it floats.
  3. 3. A sealed bottle of air is left in a hot car. Explain, using the particle model, why it may burst. (show answer)
    Answer
    The car's interior heats the trapped air. Particles move faster and hit the bottle walls harder and more often, raising pressure. If the pressure exceeds the bottle's strength, it bursts.
  4. 4. Compare the energy transfer when 100100 g of water at 00°C is warmed to 1010°C with when 100100 g of ice at 00°C melts to water at 00°C. Which change requires more energy? Why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Warming 100100 g of water by 1010°C transfers energy into faster motion. Melting 100100 g of ice transfers energy into breaking all the solid-lattice bonds. Melting requires considerably more energy because bond-breaking is "expensive" — this is why ice is so effective for cooling drinks.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Ice is less dense than liquid water (which is unusual). Explain using the particle model why water expands on freezing, and give one environmental consequence of this. (show answer)
    Answer
    Liquid water particles have weak but flexible bonds. When freezing, water molecules form a hexagonal crystal with more empty space than in the liquid — so ice is less dense. Consequence: lakes freeze from the top down, insulating water below and allowing fish to survive winter.
  2. 2. A pressure cooker cooks food faster than an open pot. Explain using the particle model why increasing the pressure raises the boiling point of water. (show answer)
    Answer
    A sealed pressure cooker traps steam, raising the gas pressure above the water. Higher external pressure makes it harder for water particles to escape as vapour, so water must reach a higher temperature before it boils — around 120120°C. Hotter water cooks food faster.
  3. 3. A hydrogen balloon and an identical helium balloon are released at the same time. Explain using particle theory which rises faster and why. (show answer)
    Answer
    Hydrogen particles have smaller mass than helium, so at the same temperature they move faster (same kinetic energy, lower mass means higher speed). The hydrogen balloon has lower density than helium and rises faster. (Hydrogen is also flammable — one reason helium is used in practice.)
  4. 4. A diver surfaces too fast from a deep dive and gets "the bends" — nitrogen bubbles form in the blood. Explain using gas pressure and dissolving behaviour. (show answer)
    Answer
    At depth, high water pressure dissolves more nitrogen from the breathing air into the blood. Surfacing drops the pressure rapidly; dissolved nitrogen comes out of solution as bubbles in blood vessels, blocking flow. Slow ascents allow nitrogen to be exhaled gradually.

Mixtures & separating techniques

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. Define: pure substance, mixture, solution, suspension. (show answer)
    Answer
    Pure: one kind of particle. Mixture: two or more substances not chemically joined. Solution: homogeneous mixture (solute dissolved in solvent). Suspension: heterogeneous mixture with undissolved solid particles.
  2. 2. Classify as homogeneous or heterogeneous: (a) milk, (b) vinegar, (c) muesli, (d) salt water, (e) concrete. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Heterogeneous — milk under a microscope shows fat droplets. (b) Homogeneous. (c) Heterogeneous. (d) Homogeneous. (e) Heterogeneous.
  3. 3. What property does filtration exploit? What property does distillation exploit? (show answer)
    Answer
    Filtration: particle size. Distillation: boiling point.
  4. 4. Name the technique for each: (a) separating iron nails from sawdust, (b) getting sugar from sugary water, (c) separating the inks in a felt-tip pen, (d) separating water from salt. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Magnetic separation. (b) Evaporation or crystallisation. (c) Chromatography. (d) Distillation.
  5. 5. In filtration, what are the residue and the filtrate? (show answer)
    Answer
    Residue is the solid trapped in the filter paper; filtrate is the liquid that passes through.
  6. 6. A solution has 1515 g of solute in 8585 g of solvent. What is the concentration (% m/m)? (show answer)
    Answer
    Total mass =15+85=100= 15 + 85 = 100 g. Concentration =15/100×100=15%= 15/100 \times 100 = 15\%.
  7. 7. Give one everyday example each of filtration and evaporation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Filtration: tea strainer, coffee filter. Evaporation: drying wet clothes, salt from salt pans.
  8. 8. Why does distillation require both heating and cooling? (show answer)
    Answer
    Heating turns the solvent to vapour; cooling (condenser) turns the vapour back to liquid so it can be collected separately.
  9. 9. Explain the difference between evaporation and distillation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Evaporation just removes the solvent (keeps the solid behind). Distillation collects both the solid residue and the pure solvent.
  10. 10. Give an example of a heterogeneous mixture from the kitchen. (show answer)
    Answer
    Muesli, salad, fruit cocktail, a bowl of soup with chunks, oil-and-vinegar dressing.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain why filtration will not separate sugar from water. (show answer)
    Answer
    Sugar is dissolved — its particles are separated into individual molecules among the water molecules, small enough to pass through the filter paper along with the water.
  2. 2. Why must chromatography use a solvent in which at least some of the pigments are soluble? (show answer)
    Answer
    At least some pigments must dissolve in the solvent so they can be carried up the paper. Otherwise nothing moves and no separation occurs.
  3. 3. A student filters muddy river water and drinks it. Is it safe? Explain using what filtration can and cannot remove. (show answer)
    Answer
    Not safe. Filtration removes undissolved solids but not dissolved chemicals, viruses, or most bacteria. Boiling or chemical treatment is still required.
  4. 4. Explain how you would separate a mixture of sand, salt and iron filings using three techniques in order. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) Add water to dissolve the salt. (ii) Use a magnet to remove iron filings. (iii) Filter to separate sand (residue) from salt solution (filtrate). (iv) Evaporate the filtrate to recover salt.
  5. 5. Why does a chromatography spot of a pure substance produce only one mark, while a spot of a mixture produces several? (show answer)
    Answer
    A pure substance has only one type of particle, so chromatography shows one spot. A mixture contains several pigments, each travelling a different distance — producing several spots.
  6. 6. A student sets up a distillation of wine (water plus ethanol). Ethanol boils at 7878°C, water at 100100°C. Which liquid collects first? Why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Ethanol collects first because it has the lower boiling point (7878°C); it vaporises and condenses before water does.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. A pharmacist must separate ground pills (insoluble) from their coating solution (dissolved sugar and colouring). Describe a three-step procedure. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) Filter the mixture — insoluble pill solids stay as residue. (ii) Evaporate the filtrate — water leaves, dissolved sugar and colouring remain as solid. (iii) If pure sugar is needed, further chromatography or recrystallisation could separate the dye from the sugar.
  2. 2. Sea water is about 3.5%3.5\% salt by mass. How much salt is in 2.02.0 kg of sea water? (show answer)
    Answer
    3.5%3.5\% of 2.02.0 kg =0.035×2000=70= 0.035 \times 2000 = 70 g.
  3. 3. A forensic scientist has a blue ink stain from a crime scene and six suspect pens. Explain how chromatography could identify (or eliminate) the source. (show answer)
    Answer
    Spot each suspect pen and the stain on a single chromatography sheet. Run in a solvent and compare the patterns. A suspect pen matching the stain's distances and colours is a likely source; any pen whose pattern differs can be eliminated.
  4. 4. In industry, crude oil is separated into petrol, diesel and kerosene by fractional distillation. Using what you know about boiling points, explain why this process works. (show answer)
    Answer
    Crude oil is heated and rises through a tall column. Lighter hydrocarbons with low boiling points rise highest before condensing; heavier ones condense at lower levels. Each fraction is collected where it condenses, separating the mixture by boiling point.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A student wants to recover pure water from sea water using only the Sun's heat and a plastic sheet (a "solar still"). Describe the setup, which physical process is used, and why it mimics distillation without a heater. (show answer)
    Answer
    A solar still has a shallow tray of sea water with a sloped transparent cover. Sunlight heats the water, some evaporates, condenses on the cool cover, and runs down into a separate collection channel. The process is evaporation + condensation — the core steps of distillation — powered by solar energy instead of a flame.
  2. 2. A mixture contains salt, sand, iron filings, and sawdust. Design a step-by-step separation procedure that recovers all four components, stating the property each step exploits. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) Magnet → remove iron filings. (ii) Add water → dissolve salt, leave sand + sawdust. (iii) Sawdust floats; pour off water with sawdust (decantation) and filter sawdust. (iv) Filter remaining mixture to separate sand (residue) from salt water (filtrate). (v) Evaporate filtrate to recover salt.
  3. 3. Air is a homogeneous mixture of oxygen (21%\approx 21\%), nitrogen (78%\approx 78\%), and minor gases. Industrial oxygen is made by cooling air to around 200-200°C and distilling it. Explain using the particle model why this works and why it is not done at room temperature. (show answer)
    Answer
    At low temperature, gas particles slow; nitrogen and oxygen condense at different points (196-196°C and 183-183°C). Fractional distillation separates them by their different boiling points. At room temperature, both are gases mixed together — no difference in state to exploit.
  4. 4. Blood is a mixture of plasma (liquid), red and white cells, and platelets. Explain why centrifugation — not filtration — is used to separate blood, and what property it exploits. (show answer)
    Answer
    Blood cells are roughly the same size as plasma particles at filter scales and can clog paper, but they are denser than plasma. Centrifugation spins the sample; denser red and white cells settle to the bottom, plasma stays at the top. It exploits density rather than particle size.

Earth, Sun & Moon: seasons, eclipses, tides

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. How long does Earth take to spin on its axis? How long to orbit the Sun? (show answer)
    Answer
    2424 hours to rotate; about 365.25365.25 days to orbit the Sun.
  2. 2. Why do we have day and night? (show answer)
    Answer
    Earth rotates on its axis; at any moment half faces the Sun (day) and half faces away (night).
  3. 3. Explain in one sentence why Earth has seasons. (show answer)
    Answer
    Earth's axis is tilted 23.5°23.5°, so each hemisphere gets more direct sunlight and longer days during its summer.
  4. 4. What is the angle of Earth's axial tilt? (show answer)
    Answer
    23.5°23.5°.
  5. 5. Name the phases of the Moon in order starting from New Moon. (show answer)
    Answer
    New Moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full Moon, waning gibbous, last quarter, waning crescent.
  6. 6. How long is one lunar month (from New Moon to New Moon)? (show answer)
    Answer
    About 29.529.5 days.
  7. 7. What lines up during a solar eclipse? At what phase does a solar eclipse happen? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sun, Moon, Earth in a line (Moon between Sun and Earth). Happens at New Moon.
  8. 8. What lines up during a lunar eclipse? At what phase? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sun, Earth, Moon in a line (Earth between Sun and Moon). Happens at Full Moon.
  9. 9. How many high tides does most of the Australian coast see each day? (show answer)
    Answer
    Two high tides (and two low tides) per day.
  10. 10. What is a spring tide? (show answer)
    Answer
    A tide with a larger than usual range, occurring at New or Full Moon when Sun and Moon are aligned.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain why summer days are longer than winter days. (show answer)
    Answer
    The hemisphere tilted towards the Sun sees the Sun rise earlier and set later because more of its latitudes are on the sunlit side of the Earth during rotation.
  2. 2. Why are temperatures hottest about a month after the summer solstice, not on the solstice itself? (show answer)
    Answer
    The ground and oceans take weeks to heat up, so peak temperature lags the peak of sunlight. This is called seasonal lag.
  3. 3. Explain why a solar eclipse does not occur at every New Moon. (show answer)
    Answer
    The Moon's orbit is tilted about 5° from Earth's orbit around the Sun, so at most New Moons the Moon passes above or below the Earth-Sun line, missing the alignment needed for an eclipse.
  4. 4. Sketch the relative positions of Sun, Earth and Moon at (a) Full Moon, (b) First quarter. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Full Moon: Sun - Earth - Moon in a line (Earth between). (b) First quarter: Sun, Earth and Moon form a right angle at Earth.
  5. 5. Why does a lunar eclipse turn the Moon reddish rather than simply making it disappear? (show answer)
    Answer
    Earth's atmosphere bends (refracts) red sunlight around into the shadow. Blue light is scattered away, leaving the Moon lit by deep red light — hence "blood Moon".
  6. 6. Explain why tides still occur on lakes but are much smaller than ocean tides. (show answer)
    Answer
    Tidal bulges require large bodies of water stretched across distances where the Moon's pull differs enough to matter. Lakes are too small for significant differential pull, so their tidal change is millimetres.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. If Earth's tilt were 0° instead of 23.5°23.5°, describe two ways life would differ. (show answer)
    Answer
    With zero tilt: (i) no seasons — each latitude's weather would be roughly the same all year. (ii) Equal day and night everywhere year-round. Agriculture, migration, and biodiversity would all change.
  2. 2. On a planet with no moon, would tides still exist? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Yes — the Sun's gravity produces solar tides too, roughly half the size of Moon tides. Without a moon, tides would still exist but would be smaller and only driven by the Sun.
  3. 3. A sailor plans a week-long coastal trip and wants the biggest tidal range to explore tidal pools. Which phase of the Moon should she pick? (show answer)
    Answer
    New Moon or Full Moon — spring tides occur then, giving the biggest range between high and low.
  4. 4. Mars has a tilt similar to Earth's (25°25°) but takes about 687687 days to orbit the Sun. Predict how seasons on Mars would differ from Earth's. (show answer)
    Answer
    Martian seasons last about 2×2\times as long as Earth's because a Mars "year" is nearly twice as long. The temperature pattern is similar (tilted-towards hemisphere has summer) but the orbit is more elliptical, so seasons have unequal length in different hemispheres.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. The Moon is slowly moving away from Earth (about 3.83.8 cm per year). Predict what will eventually happen to (a) the length of a day on Earth and (b) the size of tides, and justify each. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) As the Moon recedes, tidal friction slows Earth's rotation — days get longer. (b) Weaker pull at greater distance means the tidal bulges shrink, so tides become smaller.
  2. 2. Some years have a "blue Moon" — two Full Moons in the same calendar month. Explain why this is possible, using the 29.529.5-day lunar cycle. (show answer)
    Answer
    A calendar month is 2828-3131 days, slightly longer than the 29.529.5-day lunar cycle. Occasionally two Full Moons fit in the same month — the second is called a blue Moon. Happens roughly every 2.72.7 years.
  3. 3. If the Moon's orbit were in exactly the same plane as Earth's orbit around the Sun, how often would solar eclipses occur? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    Every New Moon — about once every 29.529.5 days. Because the orbit is tilted, the Moon usually misses the alignment; if the tilt were zero the alignment would happen every lunar cycle.
  4. 4. Design a classroom model using a torch (Sun), a ball (Earth) and a smaller ball (Moon) that shows why we see lunar phases. State one limitation of the model. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stand in a dark room. Hold a small ball (Moon) at arm's length and slowly orbit around a student (Earth) while a torch (Sun) shines from one side. Observer sees different lit portions as the Moon orbits. Limitation: the scale is wrong — in reality the Moon is far smaller and much further away than this model suggests, and the model cannot demonstrate why eclipses are rare.

Rocks & the rock cycle

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. Name the three rock types. (show answer)
    Answer
    Igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic.
  2. 2. How does an igneous rock form? (show answer)
    Answer
    From the cooling and solidification of molten rock (magma or lava).
  3. 3. How does a sedimentary rock form? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sediment is deposited in layers, compacted and cemented together into rock.
  4. 4. How does a metamorphic rock form? (show answer)
    Answer
    An existing rock is heated and/or pressed without melting, changing its minerals and texture.
  5. 5. Give one example of each rock type. (show answer)
    Answer
    Igneous: granite or basalt. Sedimentary: sandstone or limestone. Metamorphic: slate or marble.
  6. 6. What does crystal size in an igneous rock tell you about cooling? (show answer)
    Answer
    Large crystals mean slow cooling (underground); small crystals mean rapid cooling (on the surface).
  7. 7. In which rock type would you most likely find fossils? Why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sedimentary rock. It forms at low temperatures that do not destroy plant or animal remains, and sediment often buries them before decay is complete.
  8. 8. Which rock type tends to be layered from settling, and which is layered from pressure? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sedimentary layers form from sediment settling (bedding). Metamorphic layers form from pressure alignment (foliation).
  9. 9. Name a rock made from compressed plant material. (show answer)
    Answer
    Coal.
  10. 10. State one reason granite is used as a kitchen benchtop. (show answer)
    Answer
    Granite is hard, weather-resistant and takes a polish — durable and attractive for benchtops.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain why basalt has smaller crystals than granite. (show answer)
    Answer
    Basalt forms from lava on the surface that cools in days or weeks — crystals have no time to grow large. Granite forms underground where magma cools over thousands of years, allowing large interlocking crystals.
  2. 2. Why is coal a sedimentary rock and not an igneous rock? (show answer)
    Answer
    Coal forms from plant material compressed in layers over millions of years — a sedimentary process. It is not formed from molten rock.
  3. 3. A rock fizzes when a drop of vinegar is added. What chemical is it likely to contain, and which two rock types are possible? (show answer)
    Answer
    Likely contains calcium carbonate. Could be limestone (sedimentary) or marble (metamorphic version of limestone).
  4. 4. A student claims "the rock cycle is a one-way process from igneous to sedimentary to metamorphic." Correct the claim. (show answer)
    Answer
    The rock cycle is a loop, not a one-way path. Any rock type can transform into any other given the right conditions — including melting sedimentary back to igneous, or weathering igneous to sediment.
  5. 5. Marine fossils are found in rock at the top of the Himalayas. Explain using the rock cycle. (show answer)
    Answer
    The rock was once a marine sedimentary layer. Tectonic forces pushed the layer upwards as plates collided, eventually raising it to mountain heights. The fossil is evidence that the rock formed underwater.
  6. 6. Why are metamorphic rocks almost never formed on Earth's surface? (show answer)
    Answer
    Metamorphism requires high temperature and/or pressure. These conditions exist at depth (buried by kilometres of rock) or near plate boundaries — not at the surface.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. A builder needs a stone that splits into thin flat slabs for roofing. Which rock is most suitable and why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Slate. It is a metamorphic rock that splits cleanly along flat planes (foliation), making it ideal for waterproof roofing tiles.
  2. 2. You find a grey rock with embedded visible crystals and no layering. Propose a classification and a likely formation story. (show answer)
    Answer
    Likely igneous (granite or similar) — visible interlocking crystals with no layering suggest slow cooling underground.
  3. 3. Describe the full journey a grain of sand could take through the rock cycle, listing every rock type it becomes. (show answer)
    Answer
    Example: granite weathers → quartz grains → deposited in river → compacted as sandstone (sedimentary) → buried and metamorphosed to quartzite → deeper still, melted to magma → cools as granite again.
  4. 4. A 22 m thick sedimentary layer deposited at 0.50.5 mm per year represents how many years? What might have caused that layer to form? (show answer)
    Answer
    22 m = 20002000 mm. At 0.50.5 mm/year: 2000/0.5=40002000/0.5 = 4000 years. The sediment may have been deposited in a stable lake or ocean environment, possibly during a long period of steady erosion upstream.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Zircon crystals from Western Australia are over 4.44.4 billion years old — older than any known rock. Explain how a crystal can be older than the rock it is found in, using rock cycle reasoning. (show answer)
    Answer
    Zircon is a very hard mineral that can survive multiple trips through the rock cycle. A crystal can be released when its parent rock weathers, then redeposited in a new rock. The crystal's age is measured by radioactive decay and reflects when it first crystallised, not when its current rock formed.
  2. 2. If Earth had no plate tectonics, which part of the rock cycle would still operate and which would stop? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Without plate tectonics: weathering, erosion, deposition and compaction (sedimentary formation) still work because they depend on water, wind and gravity. Metamorphism largely stops — there would be no mountain-building or subduction, so pressure-heating of deep rock is minimal. Igneous activity would also be reduced; most volcanism is plate-boundary related.
  3. 3. A diamond is formed deep in Earth's mantle under extreme pressure. A piece of charcoal (carbon) is chemically the same element. Explain using the rock cycle concepts why their form and value differ so greatly. (show answer)
    Answer
    Both are carbon. Charcoal is light, crumbly carbon formed at the surface from burnt wood. Diamond forms 150+150+ km deep under immense pressure and heat, arranging carbon atoms into a hard, transparent crystal. The rock-cycle context — the depth, pressure and slow growth — turns the same element into vastly different materials.
  4. 4. A sedimentary rock contains flat fish fossils in its lower layer and desert dune patterns in its upper layer, with no mixing between. What does this tell you about the environment at this site, and in what order did events occur? (show answer)
    Answer
    Fish fossils in the lower layer indicate an aquatic environment (lake or sea) at that time. Desert dune patterns above indicate later dry, windy conditions. The absence of mixing suggests a rapid environmental change. Order: water environment first, then drying, then desert conditions, all preserved in the sequence of layers.

Forces, balanced & unbalanced

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. What is a force? Give its unit. (show answer)
    Answer
    A push or pull, measured in newtons (N).
  2. 2. Give two contact forces and two non-contact forces. (show answer)
    Answer
    Contact: friction, normal, tension, applied, air resistance. Non-contact: gravity, magnetic, electrostatic.
  3. 3. Define "net force". (show answer)
    Answer
    The single force that has the same effect as all the individual forces on an object combined.
  4. 4. What is the difference between mass and weight? (show answer)
    Answer
    Mass is how much matter is in an object (kg) — it does not change. Weight is the gravitational force on that mass (N) — it depends on gravity.
  5. 5. A box is pushed right with 2525 N and friction pulls left with 1010 N. Find the net force. (show answer)
    Answer
    2510=1525 - 10 = 15 N to the right.
  6. 6. A bag weighs 200200 N on Earth. What is its mass? (show answer)
    Answer
    m=W/g=200/10=20m = W/g = 200/10 = 20 kg.
  7. 7. Explain what a free-body diagram shows. (show answer)
    Answer
    A diagram showing every force acting on an object as an arrow from a single point, with correct direction and relative size.
  8. 8. Two students pull on a rope; each pulls 5050 N in opposite directions. What is the net force? Describe the motion. (show answer)
    Answer
    Net force =5050=0= 50 - 50 = 0 N. The rope does not accelerate; it stays at rest (or moves at constant speed if already moving).
  9. 9. An object in space has no air resistance. If a small thruster pushes it for one second and then stops, what happens next? (show answer)
    Answer
    It continues at constant speed in a straight line forever (no friction, no other forces).
  10. 10. A person has a mass of 6060 kg. What is their weight on Earth? (g=10g = 10 N/kg.) (show answer)
    Answer
    W=60×10=600W = 60 \times 10 = 600 N.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain why a book on a table stays still even though gravity pulls it down. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gravity pulls the book down; the table pushes it up with an equal normal force. The two forces cancel, giving zero net force — so the book's motion does not change.
  2. 2. A car travels at a constant 8080 km/h in a straight line. Are the forces on it balanced or unbalanced? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Balanced. Constant velocity in a straight line means zero net force; the driving force equals air resistance + rolling friction.
  3. 3. A parachutist falls at terminal velocity. Draw a labelled free-body diagram and describe the net force. (show answer)
    Answer
    Forces: gravity (weight) downward, air resistance equal and upward. Net force =0= 0, so the skydiver falls at constant (terminal) speed.
  4. 4. Why does it take more force to push a heavy box than a light one to the same acceleration? (show answer)
    Answer
    From F=maF = ma, for the same acceleration, a larger mass requires a proportionally larger force.
  5. 5. Explain why your mass is the same on the Moon but your weight is less. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mass is the amount of matter — unchanged by location. Gravity on the Moon is about 1/61/6 of Earth's, so the gravitational force (weight) is 1/61/6 — but the amount of matter is identical.
  6. 6. A satellite orbiting Earth moves at constant speed in a curve. Is the net force zero? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    No. Although speed is constant, direction is changing (circular motion). A change in direction means the velocity changes, which requires a net force — gravity, pulling toward Earth.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. A rocket engine provides 50005000 N upward. The rocket's weight is 40004000 N. Find the net force and describe what happens. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fnet=50004000=1000F_{\text{net}} = 5000 - 4000 = 1000 N upward. The rocket accelerates upward.
  2. 2. A 33 kg trolley is pushed with a net force of 1212 N. Find its acceleration using F=maF = ma. (show answer)
    Answer
    a=F/m=12/3=4a = F/m = 12/3 = 4 m/s2^2.
  3. 3. A skydiver initially accelerates downward. Describe the forces at (a) the moment of jumping, (b) mid-fall as speed rises, (c) at terminal velocity. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) On jumping: gravity much greater than air resistance → large net force down → accelerates down. (b) As speed grows, air resistance grows → net downward force shrinks → acceleration decreases. (c) At terminal velocity: air resistance = weight → net force zero → constant speed.
  4. 4. Two dogs pull on a lead attached to a post. Dog A pulls north with 8080 N; Dog B pulls east with 6060 N. Describe qualitatively the direction the post would be pulled (assume the post is only loosely set). (show answer)
    Answer
    The post is pulled at an angle between north and east. The pull is stronger toward north (80 N > 60 N), so the direction is closer to north than to east — roughly north-north-east.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A car of mass 12001200 kg accelerates from 00 to 2020 m/s in 1010 seconds. Find its acceleration and the net force required. How is this force generated? (show answer)
    Answer
    a=Δv/Δt=20/10=2a = \Delta v/\Delta t = 20/10 = 2 m/s2^2. F=ma=1200×2=2400F = ma = 1200 \times 2 = 2400 N. This force is generated by friction between the drive wheels and the road (the engine spins the wheels; the ground pushes the car forward).
  2. 2. Explain using forces why a person in a lift feels momentarily "heavier" when the lift starts going up and "lighter" when it starts going down. (show answer)
    Answer
    When a lift accelerates upward, the floor must push harder than gravity to both support the person and accelerate them upward — so the normal force is greater than weight, making you feel heavier. Going down: floor pushes less than gravity briefly, so you feel lighter.
  3. 3. A rock with weight 5050 N on Earth is taken to a planet where gravity is 3×3\times Earth's. State its mass, weight on that planet, and one everyday consequence for the astronaut. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mass: W/g=50/10=5W/g = 50/10 = 5 kg, unchanged. On the new planet: W=5×30=150W = 5 \times 30 = 150 N. The astronaut feels three times heavier — walking, lifting and standing all become very tiring.
  4. 4. Two skaters push off from each other on smooth ice: a 4040 kg skater and a 6060 kg skater. Predict which moves faster and justify using forces and mass. (show answer)
    Answer
    By Newton's third law the forces are equal and opposite. By F=maF = ma the skater with less mass (4040 kg) has greater acceleration and moves faster (6060 kg skater moves slower). Ratio of speeds: 60:40=3:260:40 = 3:2.

Simple machines

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. Name the six simple machines. (show answer)
    Answer
    Lever, inclined plane, wedge, screw, pulley, wheel and axle.
  2. 2. State the lever rule in symbols. (show answer)
    Answer
    FLdL=FEdEF_L d_L = F_E d_E.
  3. 3. For a wheelbarrow, identify: fulcrum, effort, load. Which class of lever is it? (show answer)
    Answer
    Fulcrum: the wheel at the front. Effort: handles (lifted by person). Load: weight of material in tray. Class 2 (load between fulcrum and effort).
  4. 4. What is mechanical advantage? (show answer)
    Answer
    The ratio of the load force to the effort force — how many times the machine multiplies your effort.
  5. 5. A force of 5050 N lifts a 200200 N load. Find the MA. (show answer)
    Answer
    MA=200/50=4\text{MA} = 200/50 = 4.
  6. 6. A lever has load 300300 N at 0.50.5 m from the fulcrum, effort applied at 1.51.5 m. Find the effort force. (show answer)
    Answer
    300×0.5=FE×1.5FE=150/1.5=100300 \times 0.5 = F_E \times 1.5 \Rightarrow F_E = 150/1.5 = 100 N.
  7. 7. A ramp 44 m long is used to lift a 100100 N box 11 m high. What force is needed, ideally? (show answer)
    Answer
    100×1=FE×4FE=25100 \times 1 = F_E \times 4 \Rightarrow F_E = 25 N.
  8. 8. Give an everyday example of a class-3 lever. (show answer)
    Answer
    Tweezers, fishing rod, human forearm lifting a weight, a broom.
  9. 9. What does a single fixed pulley change: direction, size, or both? (show answer)
    Answer
    Direction only.
  10. 10. A screw is equivalent to what other simple machine wrapped around a cylinder? (show answer)
    Answer
    An inclined plane.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain why pushing a 100100 kg piano up a ramp is easier than lifting it straight up. (show answer)
    Answer
    A ramp lets you apply a smaller force over a longer distance. The work done (force × distance) is about the same either way, but the smaller force is achievable by one person.
  2. 2. Why must the effort arm of a lever be longer than the load arm to give MA greater than 11? (show answer)
    Answer
    The lever rule FLdL=FEdEF_L d_L = F_E d_E can be rearranged to FE=FL×dL/dEF_E = F_L \times d_L/d_E. For FE<FLF_E < F_L (that is, MA > 1), the denominator must be larger, so dE>dLd_E > d_L.
  3. 3. A pulley system has MA =3= 3. Explain what that means for the effort force and the length of rope pulled. (show answer)
    Answer
    MA = 3 means the effort is 1/31/3 of the load. In return, the rope pulled is 33 times the distance the load moves.
  4. 4. Two people sit on a see-saw. Explain why the heavier person moves closer to the fulcrum to balance. (show answer)
    Answer
    The lever rule requires FLdL=FEdEF_L d_L = F_E d_E. If the weights are fixed, a heavier load must sit at a shorter distance from the fulcrum to balance the lighter person at a longer distance.
  5. 5. Why is no simple machine 100%100\% efficient in the real world? (show answer)
    Answer
    Friction at the fulcrum, along ramps, and in pulley bearings converts some of the input work to heat. Real MA is always slightly less than ideal MA.
  6. 6. A carpenter uses the claw end of a hammer to pull out a nail. Explain how this works as a lever. (show answer)
    Answer
    The nail is the load, the hammer's head is the fulcrum, and your hand on the handle applies the effort. The long handle and short claw give a large effort arm : load arm ratio — high MA.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. A 6060 kg child sits at one end of a 44 m see-saw with the fulcrum in the middle. Where should a 4040 kg child sit to balance? (show answer)
    Answer
    Weights: 60×10=60060 \times 10 = 600 N and 40×10=40040 \times 10 = 400 N. Let dd be distance for the 4040 kg child. 600×2=400×dd=3600 \times 2 = 400 \times d \Rightarrow d = 3 m. But the see-saw is only 44 m long with the fulcrum in the middle — 22 m each side. So balance is impossible unless the fulcrum is moved. (Good — forces students to notice infeasibility.)
  2. 2. A ramp is used to roll a 500500 N barrel into a truck 1.21.2 m high. If the effort needed is 150150 N (ideal), how long is the ramp? (show answer)
    Answer
    Ideal: work in = work out. 500×1.2=150×LL=600/150=4500 \times 1.2 = 150 \times L \Rightarrow L = 600/150 = 4 m.
  3. 3. A block and tackle has MA =4= 4 and is used to lift a 600600 N load 22 m. What force is needed? How much rope is pulled? (show answer)
    Answer
    Effort: 600/4=150600/4 = 150 N. Rope pulled: 4×2=84 \times 2 = 8 m.
  4. 4. A nutcracker has its hinge at one end, nut in the middle, and hands at the other end. Which class of lever is it? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    Class 2 lever — the load (nut) is between the fulcrum (hinge) and the effort (hands).

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A bicycle uses gears — a variable wheel-and-axle system. Explain why a low gear is chosen for climbing a hill and a high gear for flat roads, using the idea of trading force for distance. (show answer)
    Answer
    Low gear (small front ring + large rear ring) gives a high MA: your pedal force at the chain is multiplied at the wheel, so climbing a hill needs less effort per pedal stroke, but you pedal more times for each wheel turn. High gear is the reverse: less force multiplication but the wheel turns further per pedal stroke — useful at speed on flat roads.
  2. 2. A 22 m lever with fulcrum in the middle balances a 5050 N weight on one end with a 5050 N weight on the other. A student slides both weights to within 0.20.2 m of the fulcrum (on opposite sides). Does the lever still balance? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Yes — balance depends only on torque ratio, not absolute distances. 50×0.2=50×0.250 \times 0.2 = 50 \times 0.2. It still balances.
  3. 3. A real ramp has friction that absorbs 20%20\% of the work. A 400400 N box is lifted 11 m using a 44 m ramp. Calculate the ideal effort, the actual effort, and the efficiency. (show answer)
    Answer
    Ideal effort: 400×1/4=100400 \times 1 / 4 = 100 N. With 20%20\% loss, work in = 400400 J / 0.8=5000.8 = 500 J. Actual effort =500/4=125= 500/4 = 125 N. Efficiency = 400/500=80%400/500 = 80\%.
  4. 4. Pulleys used in construction can have MA of 88 or more. Explain why workers do not simply use a crane (lever system) instead, and what trade-offs matter on a real building site. (show answer)
    Answer
    Pulley systems scale well with large MA in a small footprint and are safer than levers for tall buildings. Crane levers require long rigid arms and huge counterweights. Pulleys also allow workers to stand safely away from the load. Trade-offs: pulleys can jam, need strong ropes, and have more friction; cranes lift faster.

Scientific investigation & inquiry skills

Fluency · Tier 1: recall and identify

  1. 1. Define: investigable question, hypothesis, independent variable, dependent variable, controlled variable. (show answer)
    Answer
    Investigable question: one answerable by measurement. Hypothesis: a testable prediction linking cause to effect. IV: what the experimenter changes. DV: what is measured. CV: anything else kept the same.
  2. 2. Write a hypothesis for: "Does the height of a ramp affect how far a toy car rolls after leaving it?" (show answer)
    Answer
    Example: "If the ramp is raised higher, the car will roll a greater distance after leaving the ramp, because the car starts with more gravitational potential energy converted to kinetic energy."
  3. 3. In the experiment above, identify IV, DV and two CVs. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: ramp height. DV: distance rolled. CVs: same car, same surface, same starting point on ramp, same release (no pushing), same ramp material.
  4. 4. State two reasons to repeat a measurement. (show answer)
    Answer
    To reduce random error and identify anomalies by taking the mean of several readings.
  5. 5. Which type of graph should you use for: (a) temperature over time, (b) brand of battery vs total run time, (c) height vs weight of classmates? (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Line graph. (b) Bar graph. (c) Scatter plot.
  6. 6. What is an anomaly? (show answer)
    Answer
    A data point that does not fit the overall pattern of the results.
  7. 7. What is a risk assessment, and why is it needed? (show answer)
    Answer
    A list of possible hazards and how to control them, done before the experiment to keep the experimenter, others, and the environment safe.
  8. 8. Name one random error and one systematic error in measuring liquid volume. (show answer)
    Answer
    Random: parallax when reading a meniscus. Systematic: a measuring cylinder miscalibrated so it reads 11 mL too high.
  9. 9. What is a control group? (show answer)
    Answer
    A group treated exactly like the experimental groups except for the IV. It shows what happens without the "treatment" for comparison.
  10. 10. State one reason why sample size matters. (show answer)
    Answer
    Larger samples average out random variation, making results more reliable and any real effect easier to detect.

Reasoning · Tier 2: explain and reason

  1. 1. Explain the difference between an observation and an inference. (show answer)
    Answer
    An observation is what you directly see or measure (the leaf is yellow). An inference is an explanation you infer from the observation (the plant lacks nitrogen).
  2. 2. Explain why controlling variables is essential for drawing cause-and-effect conclusions. (show answer)
    Answer
    If several variables change at once, you cannot tell which caused the effect. Controlling variables isolates the IV as the only possible cause.
  3. 3. Why is a hypothesis written before data is collected? (show answer)
    Answer
    Writing it first prevents you from unconsciously shaping the design or interpretation to match the data — this is called confirmation bias.
  4. 4. A student presents only their three "best" data points. Explain why this is poor science. (show answer)
    Answer
    Selecting "best" data misrepresents the experiment. Science requires honest reporting of all data, including outliers and disagreements with the hypothesis.
  5. 5. Explain why a larger sample size makes a conclusion more reliable. (show answer)
    Answer
    With more data, random variation cancels out more completely and any real pattern stands out more clearly from chance fluctuations.
  6. 6. A friend says, "ice cream causes shark attacks, because both rise in summer." Identify the logical error. (show answer)
    Answer
    Correlation without causation — both rise in summer because hot weather drives both independently. One does not cause the other.

Problem-solving · Tier 3: apply to a novel context

  1. 1. Design a fair test to answer: "Does the colour of a drink bottle affect how quickly water inside heats in the sun?" State IV, DV, at least four CVs, and the number of replicates. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: bottle colour (e.g. black, white, blue, red). DV: water temperature after 11 hour. CVs: same bottle material and volume, same starting water temperature, same position in sun, same weather conditions, same thermometer, same time of day. Replicates: at least 33 per colour.
  2. 2. A student records the following lengths of plant shoots (cm): 12,13,14,13,28,14,1212, 13, 14, 13, 28, 14, 12. Identify the anomaly and suggest two possible causes. (show answer)
    Answer
    Anomaly: 2828. Possible causes: typo for 1313 or 1414; wrong shoot measured (a different species); a genetic variant in that plant; measurement taken at a different date.
  3. 3. Sketch (in words, not on paper) the shape of a graph you would expect for water temperature over 20 minutes as an ice cube melts and then warms in a beaker. State what the y-axis and x-axis show. (show answer)
    Answer
    Temperature vs time (time on x-axis, temperature on y-axis). Roughly flat at 00°C while the ice melts, then rising as the water warms. A line graph with a flat region then a rise.
  4. 4. A class tests four brands of paper towel to see which absorbs most water. Describe a procedure with a clear IV, DV, three CVs and a replicate count. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: paper-towel brand. DV: mass of water absorbed (g). CVs: same piece size, same water volume, same dipping time, same squeezing. Replicates: 33 strips per brand.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A study finds that students who eat breakfast perform better on tests. Does this prove that eating breakfast causes better performance? Suggest two alternative explanations and describe how a better study could tell them apart. (show answer)
    Answer
    No. Alternative explanations: (i) students who eat breakfast may also sleep more or live in wealthier homes, and those factors drive both behaviours. (ii) students feeling good study more regularly and eat breakfast more regularly. A controlled experiment (randomly assigning students to eat or skip breakfast, with other conditions matched) would isolate the cause.
  2. 2. A class measures the boiling point of water on five different hotplates and gets readings of 9999, 101101, 100100, 100100, 102102°C. Which is most likely anomalous? Calculate the mean with and without it, and decide which is a better estimate of the true value. (show answer)
    Answer
    102102 looks anomalous — pure water boils at 100100°C at normal pressure. Mean with it: (99+101+100+100+102)/5=100.4(99+101+100+100+102)/5 = 100.4. Mean without: (99+101+100+100)/4=100.0(99+101+100+100)/4 = 100.0. The 100.0100.0 value is a better estimate if we suspect 102102 was a misreading or a calibration fault.
  3. 3. You want to know if a new fertiliser really works. Explain why you need a control group (no fertiliser) and why simply comparing "before" and "after" on the same plants is not enough. (show answer)
    Answer
    Without a control, you cannot tell if changes in the plants are due to the fertiliser or to other changes over time (weather, age, light). Some growth would happen anyway. A control group receiving no fertiliser lets you separate the fertiliser's effect from natural growth.
  4. 4. Design a simple investigation to test whether the length of a pendulum affects its swing period. State IV, DV, CVs, procedure, and what a graph of length vs period would look like. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: length of pendulum. DV: time for 1010 complete swings (divide by 1010 for period). CVs: same mass, same release angle, same location, same stopwatch. Procedure: tie string of known length, release from small angle, time 1010 swings, repeat 33 times, calculate mean period. Vary length (e.g. 20,40,60,80,10020, 40, 60, 80, 100 cm). Graph: period increases with length, as a curve (square-root relationship).