Year 10 Science | Practice mode

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270 questions across 10 topics, drawn from every Practice and Challenge block in Year 10 science. Filter by topic or level, cap the count, shuffle, and start the timer when you want to time a session.

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DNA, genes, mitosis & meiosis

Fluency · Vocabulary and structure

  1. 1. Name the four bases of DNA and state which pairs with which. (show answer)
    Answer
    Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine. A pairs with T; G pairs with C.
  2. 2. How many chromosomes are in a normal human body cell? A normal gamete? (show answer)
    Answer
    Body cell: 4646 chromosomes. Gamete: 2323 chromosomes.
  3. 3. Define: gene, allele, genotype, phenotype. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gene -- a length of DNA coding for a trait. Allele -- one version of a gene. Genotype -- the pair of alleles carried. Phenotype -- the observable trait.
  4. 4. A pea plant has genotype TtTt. Is it homozygous or heterozygous? (show answer)
    Answer
    Heterozygous (two different alleles).
  5. 5. List two purposes of mitosis in the human body. (show answer)
    Answer
    Growth and repair of tissues; replacing old cells (e.g. skin, blood).
  6. 6. State one key difference between mitosis and meiosis. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells; meiosis produces four genetically different haploid gametes.

Fluency · Punnett squares

  1. 1. Cross Bb×BbBb \times Bb (brown BB dominant, blue bb). State the phenotype ratio. (show answer)
    Answer
    3:13 : 1 brown to blue.
  2. 2. Cross BB×bbBB \times bb. State the genotype of all offspring and their phenotype. (show answer)
    Answer
    All offspring BbBb; all brown.
  3. 3. Cross Tt×ttTt \times tt (tall dominant). State the expected phenotype ratio. (show answer)
    Answer
    1:11 : 1 tall to short.
  4. 4. In guinea pigs, black fur (BB) is dominant over white (bb). What is the probability that two heterozygous parents have a white offspring? (show answer)
    Answer
    14\dfrac{1}{4}, or 25%25\%.
  5. 5. Two parents both have attached earlobes (recessive, genotype eeee). What earlobe phenotype will all their children have? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    All children will have attached earlobes. Both parents are eeee, so every child must inherit ee from each parent.

Reasoning · Applied inheritance

  1. 1. In humans, widow's peak hairline (WW) is dominant over straight (ww). A woman with a widow's peak whose mother had a straight hairline marries a man with a straight hairline. What is her genotype? What fraction of their children are expected to have a widow's peak? (show answer)
    Answer
    Her mother was wwww, so the woman inherited ww from mother and WW from her widow's-peak parent; genotype WwWw. Cross Ww×wwWw \times ww: 12\dfrac{1}{2} widow's peak, 12\dfrac{1}{2} straight.
  2. 2. Two carriers of cystic fibrosis (FfFf) plan to have four children. What is the expected number of affected children? Why might the actual number differ? (show answer)
    Answer
    Expected 14×4=1\dfrac{1}{4} \times 4 = 1 affected child. The actual number can differ because each child is an independent event; outcomes follow a binomial distribution, not a guaranteed quota.
  3. 3. Explain why a cross between two heterozygotes produces a 3:13 : 1 phenotypic ratio but a 1:2:11 : 2 : 1 genotypic ratio. (show answer)
    Answer
    Offspring genotypes BB:Bb:bb=1:2:1BB : Bb : bb = 1 : 2 : 1. Because BBBB and BbBb share the dominant phenotype, the three "brown" outcomes combine, giving 3:13 : 1.
  4. 4. A colour-blind father and a non-carrier mother have children. Can any of their daughters be colour-blind? Can any of their sons? Justify with a Punnett square. (show answer)
    Answer
    Father is XcYX^c Y, mother is XCXCX^C X^C. All daughters are XCXcX^C X^c (carriers, not colour-blind). All sons are XCYX^C Y (not colour-blind).
  5. 5. A farmer crosses two red-flowered plants and gets 7575 red and 2424 white offspring. Deduce the genotypes of the parents and write the Punnett square. (show answer)
    Answer
    Ratio 3:1\approx 3 : 1 suggests both parents are heterozygous RrRr. Punnett: RR,Rr,Rr,rrRR, Rr, Rr, rr, giving 33 red :1: 1 white.

Problem-solving · Meiosis and variation

  1. 1. Explain how meiosis, followed by random fertilisation, produces genetic variation in offspring even though the parents' genes do not change. (show answer)
    Answer
    Meiosis shuffles maternal and paternal chromosomes by independent assortment and crossing over, producing gametes with new combinations. Random fertilisation then pairs two such gametes, so each child represents one of millions of possible genotypes.
  2. 2. A cell with 88 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes are in each gamete? How many gametes are produced from one starting cell? (show answer)
    Answer
    44 chromosomes per gamete; 44 gametes from one starting cell.
  3. 3. Haemophilia is X-linked recessive. A carrier mother and an unaffected father have a son. What is the probability that the son has haemophilia? What is the probability a daughter is a carrier? (show answer)
    Answer
    Son has haemophilia with probability 12\dfrac{1}{2}. Daughter is a carrier with probability 12\dfrac{1}{2} (the other 12\dfrac{1}{2} are XHXHX^H X^H).
  4. 4. In snapdragons, red (RR) and white (rr) alleles show incomplete dominance: RrRr gives pink. Cross Rr×RrRr \times Rr and give the phenotype ratio. (show answer)
    Answer
    1:2:11 : 2 : 1 red : pink : white.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A couple has three daughters already. They ask: "What is the probability our next child is a girl?" Explain why the answer is still 12\tfrac{1}{2}, not 116\tfrac{1}{16}. Link your answer to the independence of meiosis events. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each conception is independent; meiosis in the father randomly produces an XX-bearing or YY-bearing sperm with probability 12\tfrac{1}{2}. Previous children do not change the odds for the next.
  2. 2. Huntington's disease is autosomal dominant. A man whose father had Huntington's has not yet developed symptoms. If his mother is unaffected (hhhh), what is the probability that he carries the allele? If he does, what is the probability each of his children inherits it? (show answer)
    Answer
    His father must have been HhHh (or he could not pass the allele), so the son's probability of being HhHh is 12\dfrac{1}{2}. If he is HhHh, each child has probability 12\dfrac{1}{2} of inheriting HH.
  3. 3. A dihybrid cross involves two genes at once. If pea colour (yellow YY dominant, green yy) and shape (round RR dominant, wrinkled rr) assort independently, predict the phenotype ratio of offspring from a cross YyRr×YyRrYyRr \times YyRr. (Hint: 9:3:3:19 : 3 : 3 : 1.) Justify the 99 category. (show answer)
    Answer
    Ratio 9:3:3:19 : 3 : 3 : 1 (both dominant : yellow round; yellow wrinkled; green round; green wrinkled). The 99 comes from 34×34=916\dfrac{3}{4} \times \dfrac{3}{4} = \dfrac{9}{16} having at least one dominant allele for each gene.
  4. 4. Evolutionary biologists argue that sexual reproduction, though costly, persists because meiosis generates variation. Explain how (i) independent assortment of chromosomes and (ii) random fertilisation combine to produce a vast number of possible offspring genotypes from a single couple. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) With 2323 chromosome pairs, independent assortment gives 2238.4×1062^{23} \approx 8.4 \times 10^6 gamete combinations per parent. (ii) Random fertilisation squares this: 7×1013\approx 7 \times 10^{13} possible zygote genotypes, before crossing over. Variation fuels adaptation to changing environments.

Evolution by natural selection

Fluency · Concepts and definitions

  1. 1. State the four conditions for natural selection. (show answer)
    Answer
    Variation; selection pressure; differential survival and reproduction; heritability.
  2. 2. Define: adaptation, fitness, selection pressure. (show answer)
    Answer
    Adaptation -- an inherited trait that improves survival or reproduction in a given environment. Fitness -- the number of viable offspring an individual contributes. Selection pressure -- an environmental factor (predator, climate, disease, food supply) that favours some variants over others.
  3. 3. Explain the difference between homologous and analogous structures, with one example of each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Homologous: same underlying structure, different function (human arm and whale flipper share bones). Analogous: same function, different origin (butterfly wing and bat wing).
  4. 4. What is a vestigial structure? Give one human example. (show answer)
    Answer
    A structure that no longer serves its original function (e.g. human appendix, wisdom teeth, tailbone).
  5. 5. Define a species. (show answer)
    Answer
    A group whose members can interbreed in nature to produce fertile offspring.
  6. 6. Describe allopatric speciation in one sentence. (show answer)
    Answer
    A physical barrier splits a population; the separated groups diverge until they can no longer interbreed.

Fluency · Evidence

  1. 1. List four lines of evidence for evolution. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fossil record, biogeography, comparative anatomy (homologous structures), molecular (DNA/protein) similarity. (Also embryology, direct observation.)
  2. 2. Why are transitional fossils (e.g. Archaeopteryx) important? (show answer)
    Answer
    They show intermediate features between ancestral and modern groups, matching the predictions of common descent.
  3. 3. Humans share about ___%\_\_\_\% of their DNA with chimpanzees. Fill in the blank. (show answer)
    Answer
    About 98.8%98.8\%.
  4. 4. Why do Australia and South America each have unique mammal faunas (marsupials and placentals, respectively)? (show answer)
    Answer
    The continents were isolated for tens of millions of years; mammals evolved along separate lines on each land mass.
  5. 5. True or false: natural selection causes mutations to arise. Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    False. Mutations arise randomly, independent of the environment. Selection then acts on the variation already present.

Reasoning · Case studies

  1. 1. Explain, step by step, how a population of bacteria becomes resistant to an antibiotic after exposure over several weeks. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mutations produce rare resistant cells; the antibiotic kills susceptible cells; resistant cells survive, reproduce rapidly (every 20\sim 20 min), and pass resistance to daughter cells; within weeks resistant strains dominate.
  2. 2. Dark peppered moths rose from <1%<1\% to >95%>95\% of the population as British cities industrialised. After air-quality laws cleaned the atmosphere, the trend reversed. Explain in terms of natural selection. (show answer)
    Answer
    When soot darkened the trees, birds preyed on conspicuous light moths; dark moths survived and reproduced more, raising the frequency of the dark allele. After clean-air laws pale bark returned, reversing the advantage.
  3. 3. In a dry year on Daphne Major island, large hard seeds dominate. Finches with larger, stronger beaks survive better. In a wet year, small seeds are plentiful and smaller beaks do better. Explain why the average beak size oscillates. (show answer)
    Answer
    Selection pressure changes with rainfall; the trait that maximises fitness changes each year, so the mean beak size tracks the current food supply.
  4. 4. A cheetah can run at over 100100 km/h. Explain, using variation and selection pressure, how this adaptation evolved. (show answer)
    Answer
    Prey speed is a selection pressure; faster cheetahs caught more prey and raised more cubs; the fastest heritable traits (long legs, flexible spine, large heart and lungs) accumulated over many generations.
  5. 5. Pesticide-resistant insects can emerge within a few growing seasons. Explain, and suggest two farming strategies that slow this process. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mutation produces rare resistant individuals; pesticide kills susceptible ones; survivors breed; resistance spreads. Strategies: rotate between pesticides with different modes of action; leave "refuge" areas untreated so susceptible genes persist in the population.

Problem-solving · Analysis and argument

  1. 1. An island population of lizards shows a wide range of body sizes. After a hurricane, the survivors are mostly larger individuals. Is this evidence of natural selection? What else would you need to see to be confident? (show answer)
    Answer
    Consistent with selection, but a one-off survival event could be chance. Confidence requires heritability (do offspring of survivors also tend to be larger?) and repeatability across generations or populations.
  2. 2. Two bird populations on neighbouring islands were once the same species. They are still anatomically similar, but their songs are so different they no longer recognise each other as mates. Have they become separate species? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Yes, effectively. Behavioural isolation (mate recognition) is a reproductive barrier; gene flow has stopped. They are on their way to being recognised as distinct species even if still anatomically similar.
  3. 3. Whale embryos show temporary hind limbs, and adult whales have vestigial pelvic bones. How do these facts support the claim that whales evolved from land mammals? (show answer)
    Answer
    Vestigial limbs and embryonic hind-limb buds are expected if whales descended from four-legged ancestors. Genetic programs for limbs persist but are no longer expressed fully.
  4. 4. A creationist argues that "the eye is too complex to have evolved." Give two evolutionary responses: one from direct evidence and one from the logic of small incremental steps. (show answer)
    Answer
    Direct: transitional forms (light-sensitive patches in flatworms, cup eyes in snails, pinhole eyes in nautiluses, full lens eyes in vertebrates) show a gradient of working intermediate eyes. Logic: each small improvement in light detection confers survival advantage, so intermediate eyes are favoured -- not disadvantageous.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Antibiotic resistance is sometimes called "evolution in real time." Design a simple school experiment (using non-pathogenic bacteria) that would let students watch the frequency of a resistance allele change. Identify the selection pressure, the heritable variation, and how you would measure fitness. (show answer)
    Answer
    Grow a large bacterial culture; plate onto agar with and without low-dose antibiotic. Selection pressure: the antibiotic. Heritable variation: resistance alleles from spontaneous mutation. Measure fitness by counting colonies; track allele frequency by repeated subculturing.
  2. 2. The horse evolutionary lineage shows a progression from 5050-million-year-old Hyracotherium (dog-sized, four-toed) to modern Equus (single hoof, large body). Why is it misleading to call this a "ladder of progress"? What does the branching bush of horse fossils actually show? (show answer)
    Answer
    Evolution is not directional. The horse fossil record is a branching bush with many extinct side lineages -- not a straight march to Equus. Modern horses are one surviving branch; most lineages went extinct.
  3. 3. A population of 1000010\,000 moths has an allele frequency of q=0.1q = 0.1 for a recessive dark allele. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what fraction of the population expresses the dark phenotype? If a sudden selection pressure removes all light moths (p2+2pqp^2 + 2pq combined) in one generation, what is the new qq? (show answer)
    Answer
    Fraction expressing dark phenotype =q2=0.01= q^2 = 0.01 (1%). If only q2q^2 survives, the new allele frequency is q=1q = 1 (the dark allele fixes at 100%100\%) since only homozygous dark individuals remain.
  4. 4. Human activity -- habitat destruction, climate change, introduced species -- is now a major evolutionary force. Give two examples of modern species evolving rapidly in response to human-caused selection pressures. (show answer)
    Answer
    Urban birds changing songs to cut through city noise; tuskless elephants becoming more common under ivory poaching pressure; peppered moth; antibiotic-resistant bacteria; herbicide-resistant weeds; salmon reaching sexual maturity earlier under heavy fishing of large fish. (Any two.)

Periodic table & atomic properties

Fluency · Table literacy

  1. 1. What is the difference between a group and a period? (show answer)
    Answer
    A group is a vertical column; a period is a horizontal row. Group members share valence-electron count; period members share their outermost shell number.
  2. 2. Name the elements in Group 1 (first five). (show answer)
    Answer
    Hydrogen, lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium. (H is sometimes placed separately.)
  3. 3. Name the elements in Group 18 (first four). (show answer)
    Answer
    Helium, neon, argon, krypton.
  4. 4. Where are metals located on the periodic table? Non-metals? (show answer)
    Answer
    Metals: left and centre. Non-metals: upper right.
  5. 5. What is a metalloid? Name two. (show answer)
    Answer
    Elements on the diagonal "staircase" with some metallic and some non-metallic properties. Examples: silicon, germanium, boron.
  6. 6. Why are noble gases unreactive? (show answer)
    Answer
    Their outer electron shells are full, so they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons.

Fluency · Electron configuration

  1. 1. Write the electron configuration of (a) carbon, (b) oxygen, (c) neon, (d) sodium. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) C: 2,42, 4. (b) O: 2,62, 6. (c) Ne: 2,82, 8. (d) Na: 2,8,12, 8, 1.
  2. 2. Which group is an element with configuration 2,8,62, 8, 6 in? Name it. (show answer)
    Answer
    Group 16. Sulfur.
  3. 3. Which group is an element with configuration 2,8,8,12, 8, 8, 1 in? Name it. (show answer)
    Answer
    Group 1. Potassium.
  4. 4. How many valence electrons does nitrogen (Z = 7) have? (show answer)
    Answer
    55 valence electrons.
  5. 5. Draw the electron-shell diagram for magnesium (Z = 12). (show answer)
    Answer
    Mg (2,8,22, 8, 2): two electrons in inner shell, eight in second, two in outer.

Fluency · Ions and bonding

  1. 1. What charge does a Group 1 metal ion carry? A Group 2 metal? (show answer)
    Answer
    Group 1: +1+1. Group 2: +2+2.
  2. 2. What charge does a Group 17 ion carry? A Group 16 non-metal? (show answer)
    Answer
    Group 17: 1-1. Group 16: 2-2.
  3. 3. Is sodium chloride (NaCl) ionic or covalent? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Ionic -- a metal (Na) bonded with a non-metal (Cl); electrons transfer.
  4. 4. Is methane (CH4_4) ionic or covalent? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Covalent -- both elements are non-metals (C and H); electrons are shared.
  5. 5. Write the formula for the ionic compound formed between magnesium and oxygen. (show answer)
    Answer
    MgO.

Reasoning · Trends and explain

  1. 1. Explain why reactivity increases down Group 1 but decreases down Group 17. (show answer)
    Answer
    Down Group 1, outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost, so metals become more reactive. Down Group 17, atoms are larger and less able to attract an extra electron, so non-metal reactivity falls.
  2. 2. Predict which is more reactive: sodium or magnesium. Justify using electron configurations. (show answer)
    Answer
    Sodium is more reactive. Na loses 11 electron to form Na+^+; Mg must lose 22 electrons to form Mg2+^{2+}, which requires more energy.
  3. 3. Why do elements in the same group have similar chemical properties? (show answer)
    Answer
    They have the same number of valence electrons; chemistry is determined by the outer shell.
  4. 4. Explain why atoms form ions -- what is the "goal" of the process? (show answer)
    Answer
    Atoms form ions to reach a full outer shell (the noble-gas configuration), which is energetically stable.
  5. 5. A student claims "helium should be in Group 2 because it has 2 electrons." Explain why helium is in Group 18 instead. (show answer)
    Answer
    Helium has only 22 electrons, but its outer shell (11s) is full at 22. It is chemically inert like the other noble gases, so it belongs in Group 18 by behaviour.

Problem-solving · Applications

  1. 1. Lithium-ion batteries rely on Li+^+ ions moving between electrodes. Why is lithium used rather than sodium or potassium? (Consider mass and reactivity.) (show answer)
    Answer
    Lithium is the lightest metal and has the highest energy-to-mass ratio; it is also less violently reactive than sodium or potassium when managed in non-aqueous electrolytes, and its ion is small enough to move quickly between electrodes.
  2. 2. Argon is used inside incandescent light bulbs. Why is it safer than oxygen or nitrogen? (show answer)
    Answer
    Argon is inert -- it will not react with the hot filament. Oxygen would oxidise (burn) the filament; nitrogen is less reactive but still less safe than argon.
  3. 3. Fluorine forms HF, chlorine forms HCl, bromine forms HBr. Which of these three reactions is most vigorous? Predict using the group trend. (show answer)
    Answer
    HF is most vigorous; going down Group 17 reactivity decreases, so F >> Cl >> Br.
  4. 4. Write the formula and bonding type for (a) potassium chloride, (b) calcium oxide, (c) carbon dioxide, (d) ammonia (NH3_3). (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) KCl, ionic. (b) CaO, ionic. (c) CO2_2, covalent. (d) NH3_3, covalent.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Mendeleev predicted the existence of "eka-silicon" (later discovered as germanium) with specific properties. What aspects of the periodic table made such predictions possible? Why did the modern table switch from atomic mass to atomic number as the ordering principle? (show answer)
    Answer
    The table's pattern meant each gap had predictable properties from its neighbours (mass, melting point, reactivity). The switch to atomic number resolved anomalies (e.g. tellurium and iodine appear out of order by mass but in the right order by proton count), and atomic number reflects the true physical basis of chemistry.
  2. 2. Transition metals often form ions with more than one possible charge (e.g. Fe2+^{2+} and Fe3+^{3+}). Why does this complication not appear for Group 1 or Group 17 elements? (show answer)
    Answer
    Group 1 and 17 elements are typically one electron away from a noble-gas configuration, giving one clearly preferred ion. Transition metals have inner-shell (d-orbital) electrons of similar energy that can also be removed, giving multiple stable ions.
  3. 3. The radius of Na is about 186186 pm, while Na+^+ is only about 102102 pm. Explain the dramatic shrinkage. Compare with Cl (9999 pm) vs Cl^- (181181 pm), where the opposite happens. (show answer)
    Answer
    Na loses its one outer-shell electron, collapsing to the inner 2,82, 8 shell -- much smaller. Cl gains an electron into its outer shell; electron-electron repulsion and a weaker effective nuclear pull per electron expand the radius.
  4. 4. Water (H2_2O) is a covalent compound, yet it dissolves NaCl (ionic). Explain why, in terms of water molecules' polarity and the charged ions in the crystal. (show answer)
    Answer
    Water is polar: the O end is slightly negative, the H end slightly positive. Polar water molecules surround the Na+^+ and Cl^- ions, pulling them out of the crystal lattice -- dissolution.

Chemical reactions & conservation of mass

Fluency · Word and symbol equations

  1. 1. State the Law of Conservation of Mass in one sentence. (show answer)
    Answer
    In a chemical reaction, the total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products -- atoms are rearranged, not created or destroyed.
  2. 2. Write a word equation for the burning of hydrogen in oxygen. (show answer)
    Answer
    Hydrogen + oxygen \to water.
  3. 3. Write the symbol equation for the decomposition of water by electricity into hydrogen and oxygen gas. (show answer)
    Answer
    2H2O2H2+O22\text{H}_2\text{O} \to 2\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2.
  4. 4. Identify the reactants and products in: Zn+2HClZnCl2+H2\text{Zn} + 2\text{HCl} \to \text{ZnCl}_2 + \text{H}_2. (show answer)
    Answer
    Reactants: zinc, hydrochloric acid. Products: zinc chloride, hydrogen.
  5. 5. What does the coefficient "22" mean in "2H2O2\text{H}_2\text{O}"? (show answer)
    Answer
    There are 22 water molecules (so 44 H atoms and 22 O atoms in total from that term).

Fluency · Balancing

  1. 1. H2+Cl2HCl\text{H}_2 + \text{Cl}_2 \to \text{HCl}. (show answer)
    Answer
    H2+Cl22HCl\text{H}_2 + \text{Cl}_2 \to 2\text{HCl}.
  2. 2. Na+O2Na2O\text{Na} + \text{O}_2 \to \text{Na}_2\text{O}. (show answer)
    Answer
    4Na+O22Na2O4\text{Na} + \text{O}_2 \to 2\text{Na}_2\text{O}.
  3. 3. Al+O2Al2O3\text{Al} + \text{O}_2 \to \text{Al}_2\text{O}_3. (show answer)
    Answer
    4Al+3O22Al2O34\text{Al} + 3\text{O}_2 \to 2\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3.
  4. 4. Mg+HClMgCl2+H2\text{Mg} + \text{HCl} \to \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{H}_2. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mg+2HClMgCl2+H2\text{Mg} + 2\text{HCl} \to \text{MgCl}_2 + \text{H}_2.
  5. 5. C2H6+O2CO2+H2O\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 + \text{O}_2 \to \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O}. (show answer)
    Answer
    2C2H6+7O24CO2+6H2O2\text{C}_2\text{H}_6 + 7\text{O}_2 \to 4\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}.
  6. 6. Fe2O3+CFe+CO2\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + \text{C} \to \text{Fe} + \text{CO}_2. (show answer)
    Answer
    2Fe2O3+3C4Fe+3CO22\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 + 3\text{C} \to 4\text{Fe} + 3\text{CO}_2.

Fluency · Conservation of mass

  1. 1. 88 g of sulfur reacts completely with 88 g of oxygen. What is the mass of sulfur dioxide produced? (show answer)
    Answer
    1616 g.
  2. 2. 1010 g of limestone (CaCO3_3) decomposes to give 5.65.6 g of calcium oxide. How much CO2_2 was released? (show answer)
    Answer
    105.6=4.410 - 5.6 = 4.4 g.
  3. 3. A 33 g magnesium ribbon burns in air and forms 55 g of magnesium oxide. How much oxygen reacted? (show answer)
    Answer
    53=25 - 3 = 2 g.
  4. 4. 4.64.6 g of sodium combines with 3.553.55 g of chlorine gas. What mass of sodium chloride forms? (show answer)
    Answer
    4.6+3.55=8.154.6 + 3.55 = 8.15 g.
  5. 5. 2020 g of iron rusts completely by combining with oxygen to form 28.628.6 g of iron(III) oxide. How much oxygen was used? (show answer)
    Answer
    28.620=8.628.6 - 20 = 8.6 g.

Reasoning · Reaction types and explain

  1. 1. Classify each: (a) 2H2+O22H2O2\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2 \to 2\text{H}_2\text{O}; (b) CaCO3CaO+CO2\text{CaCO}_3 \to \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2; (c) Cu+2AgNO3Cu(NO3)2+2Ag\text{Cu} + 2\text{AgNO}_3 \to \text{Cu(NO}_3)_2 + 2\text{Ag}; (d) C3H8+5O23CO2+4H2O\text{C}_3\text{H}_8 + 5\text{O}_2 \to 3\text{CO}_2 + 4\text{H}_2\text{O}. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Synthesis. (b) Decomposition. (c) Displacement. (d) Combustion.
  2. 2. A student tries to balance H2+O2H2O2\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2 \to \text{H}_2\text{O}_2 by changing the water formula. Why is this wrong? (show answer)
    Answer
    Subscripts describe what the molecule is. Changing them changes the compound (water to hydrogen peroxide). Only coefficients (whole-number multiples of molecules) may be changed.
  3. 3. When iron rusts, the mass of the object appears to increase. Does this violate conservation of mass? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    No. Iron combines with oxygen from the air; the added mass is oxygen. Mass of iron + oxygen consumed = mass of rust formed.
  4. 4. A candle burns and loses mass. Explain where the mass went. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mass was converted to CO2_2 and water vapour that escaped into the air. If the candle burned in a sealed system, no mass would be lost.
  5. 5. Photosynthesis: 6CO2+6H2OC6H12O6+6O26\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \to \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2. If 8888 g of CO2_2 and 3636 g of water react, what is the combined mass of glucose and oxygen produced? (show answer)
    Answer
    88+36=12488 + 36 = 124 g total products.

Problem-solving · Real reactions

  1. 1. When 55 g of copper carbonate decomposes, 3.23.2 g of copper oxide remains. What mass of CO2_2 escaped? Write the balanced equation. (show answer)
    Answer
    CO2_2 mass: 53.2=1.85 - 3.2 = 1.8 g. Equation: CuCO3CuO+CO2\text{CuCO}_3 \to \text{CuO} + \text{CO}_2.
  2. 2. A zinc strip placed in copper sulfate solution gradually becomes coated in copper. Write the balanced equation and classify the reaction. (show answer)
    Answer
    Zn+CuSO4ZnSO4+Cu\text{Zn} + \text{CuSO}_4 \to \text{ZnSO}_4 + \text{Cu}. Displacement (Zn is more reactive than Cu).
  3. 3. Write and balance the symbol equation for the complete combustion of butane (C4_4H10_{10}) in oxygen. (show answer)
    Answer
    2C4H10+13O28CO2+10H2O2\text{C}_4\text{H}_{10} + 13\text{O}_2 \to 8\text{CO}_2 + 10\text{H}_2\text{O}.
  4. 4. Sodium metal reacts vigorously with water to produce hydrogen gas and sodium hydroxide. Write the balanced equation. (show answer)
    Answer
    2Na+2H2O2NaOH+H22\text{Na} + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} \to 2\text{NaOH} + \text{H}_2.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. 10.010.0 g of CaCO3_3 is heated in an open crucible. The decomposition reaction produces CaO and CO2_2. Explain how you could verify conservation of mass despite CO2_2 escaping. (show answer)
    Answer
    Perform the reaction in a closed, weighed flask fitted with a balloon or sealed gas collection. The total mass of the sealed system before and after the reaction will be equal. Alternatively, measure the masses of CaO produced and CO2_2 collected separately and sum them.
  2. 2. A sealed glass ampoule contains 3.03.0 g of hydrogen and 24.024.0 g of oxygen. After ignition all the hydrogen is consumed. What is the mass of water formed, and what is left in the ampoule? (show answer)
    Answer
    Balanced equation: 2H2+O22H2O2\text{H}_2 + \text{O}_2 \to 2\text{H}_2\text{O}. 3.03.0 g H2_2 needs 24.024.0 g O2_2 (stoichiometric ratio 4:32=1:84 : 32 = 1 : 8), so both are fully consumed. Mass of water =3.0+24.0=27.0= 3.0 + 24.0 = 27.0 g. The ampoule contains only water (as liquid/vapour).
  3. 3. Derive the balanced equation for the combustion of ethanol (C2_2H5_5OH) in oxygen, and use atom counting to verify the equation. (show answer)
    Answer
    C2H5OH+3O22CO2+3H2O\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH} + 3\text{O}_2 \to 2\text{CO}_2 + 3\text{H}_2\text{O}. Check: C 2=22 = 2; H 6=66 = 6; O 1+6=2+31 + 6 = 2 + 3, i.e. 7=77 = 7. Balanced.
  4. 4. Antoine Lavoisier weighed reactants and products in sealed vessels to prove conservation of mass. Why would open-vessel experiments of the day fail to reveal this law? Give two examples where an open vessel would give misleading mass readings. (show answer)
    Answer
    Open vessels allow gases to enter or leave, making "before" and "after" masses disagree. Examples: (i) a burning candle -- mass appears to decrease as CO2_2 and water vapour escape; (ii) iron rusting in open air -- mass appears to increase as it absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere.

Reaction types, rates, exo/endothermic

Fluency · Reaction types

  1. 1. Classify: (a) 2KClO32KCl+3O22\text{KClO}_3 \to 2\text{KCl} + 3\text{O}_2; (b) 2Na+Cl22NaCl2\text{Na} + \text{Cl}_2 \to 2\text{NaCl}; (c) Fe+CuSO4FeSO4+Cu\text{Fe} + \text{CuSO}_4 \to \text{FeSO}_4 + \text{Cu}. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Decomposition. (b) Synthesis. (c) Displacement.
  2. 2. Predict whether the reaction occurs: (a) Ag+CuSO4\text{Ag} + \text{CuSO}_4; (b) Mg+ZnCl2\text{Mg} + \text{ZnCl}_2. Justify using the reactivity series. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) No: silver is below copper, so Ag cannot displace Cu. (b) Yes: magnesium is above zinc in the reactivity series, so Mg displaces Zn.
  3. 3. Write a balanced equation for the synthesis of magnesium oxide from magnesium metal and oxygen. (show answer)
    Answer
    2Mg+O22MgO2\text{Mg} + \text{O}_2 \to 2\text{MgO}.
  4. 4. Write a balanced equation for the decomposition of calcium carbonate on heating. (show answer)
    Answer
    CaCO3CaO+CO2\text{CaCO}_3 \to \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2.

Fluency · Rate factors

  1. 1. State the three conditions for a successful collision between reactant particles. (show answer)
    Answer
    Particles must collide, with enough energy (activation energy), and with the correct orientation.
  2. 2. List four factors that increase reaction rate. (show answer)
    Answer
    Higher temperature, higher concentration, greater surface area, adding a catalyst.
  3. 3. Does increasing concentration of a solid reactant affect the rate? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    No -- "concentration" refers to dissolved or gaseous reactants. For a solid, surface area is the equivalent lever.
  4. 4. Explain why powdered sugar burns much faster than a sugar cube. (show answer)
    Answer
    Powdered sugar has a far greater surface area exposed to oxygen; more collisions per second support rapid combustion.
  5. 5. What is a catalyst? Does it get used up in the reaction? (show answer)
    Answer
    A substance that speeds up a reaction by providing a lower-activation-energy pathway without being consumed overall.

Fluency · Energy changes

  1. 1. Define exothermic and endothermic with one example of each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Exothermic: releases energy (e.g. combustion of methane). Endothermic: absorbs energy (e.g. photosynthesis).
  2. 2. On an energy profile, how can you tell if the reaction is exothermic? (show answer)
    Answer
    The products are at a lower energy than the reactants -- the curve ends below where it started.
  3. 3. What does activation energy mean, and where is it on an energy profile? (show answer)
    Answer
    The minimum energy that colliding particles need to react; it is the peak of the energy profile above the reactant level.
  4. 4. True or false: a catalyst changes the amount of energy released by a reaction. Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    False. A catalyst lowers activation energy; the overall energy change between reactants and products is unchanged.

Reasoning · Explain using collision theory

  1. 1. Cold food lasts longer in the fridge. Explain in terms of reaction rate. (show answer)
    Answer
    Lower temperature means slower particles, fewer successful collisions per second, so spoilage (a reaction) is slower.
  2. 2. A student grinds a marble chip into powder before adding to acid. Predict the effect on the rate of CO2_2 production and explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    Rate increases -- more marble surface is exposed to acid, so more particle collisions per second.
  3. 3. Why is a 22 mol/L acid solution more vigorous than a 0.50.5 mol/L solution with the same metal? (show answer)
    Answer
    Higher concentration means more reactant particles per unit volume, giving more collisions per second with the metal.
  4. 4. Explain why a rise of 10C10\,^\circ\text{C} can roughly double a reaction's rate, yet the activation energy of the reaction has not changed. (show answer)
    Answer
    A small rise in average kinetic energy roughly doubles the fraction of particles above the activation-energy threshold, even though EaE_a itself is unchanged. (The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution steepens in the high-energy tail with temperature.)
  5. 5. A catalyst is "not consumed" in the reaction. Explain what this means using the idea of an alternative pathway. (show answer)
    Answer
    The catalyst participates in intermediate steps but is regenerated by the end of the reaction. It offers a new route with a lower energy barrier.

Problem-solving · Apply and interpret

  1. 1. A sparkler burns brightly while a lump of iron does not. Explain using surface area and temperature. (show answer)
    Answer
    The sparkler has fine metal particles (large surface area) and burns at high temperature, meeting many oxygen molecules per second; the lump of iron has very little exposed surface and stays cool.
  2. 2. Photosynthesis stores energy from sunlight in glucose. Is this reaction exothermic or endothermic? How is combustion of glucose (respiration) related? (show answer)
    Answer
    Endothermic -- it absorbs solar energy. Respiration (combustion of glucose) is the reverse, so it is exothermic, releasing the stored energy.
  3. 3. A chemist measures CO2_2 released when CaCO3_3 reacts with HCl. At 20C20\,^\circ\text{C} the reaction finishes in 120120 s; at 40C40\,^\circ\text{C} it finishes in 5050 s. (a) Which has the faster average rate? (b) Is the total mass of CO2_2 produced the same in both cases? (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) 40C40\,^\circ\text{C}: more CO2_2 per second on average. (b) Yes -- same amount of CaCO3_3, same amount of HCl, same total CO2_2.
  4. 4. Hydrogen peroxide decomposes slowly, but adding manganese dioxide powder produces rapid bubbling. (a) What role does MnO2_2 play? (b) What happens to its mass over the reaction? (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) MnO2_2 is a catalyst -- it lowers the activation energy for H2_2O2_2 decomposition. (b) Its mass is unchanged; it is not consumed.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A reaction has activation energy Ea=50E_a = 50 kJ/mol. At 300300 K, about 11 in 10810^8 collisions has enough energy to react. Explain qualitatively why doubling the concentration does not change the fraction of successful collisions but does change the reaction rate. (show answer)
    Answer
    Doubling concentration does not change the distribution of molecular speeds, so the fraction of collisions with enough energy is the same. However, the total number of collisions per second doubles, so the rate doubles.
  2. 2. Describe how a catalytic converter in a car exhaust speeds up the conversion of CO and unburnt fuel into CO2_2, and why precious metals (Pt, Pd, Rh) are used despite the cost. (show answer)
    Answer
    The catalyst surface adsorbs exhaust gases and brings them into reactive proximity at a lower activation energy. Pt/Pd/Rh are used because they resist high temperatures, bind the gases with ideal strength (strong enough to hold but weak enough to release products), and are not consumed.
  3. 3. Sketch energy profile diagrams for: (a) an exothermic reaction with and without a catalyst; (b) an endothermic reaction. Label activation energy on each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Exothermic: curve from high reactants, up to EaE_a, down to low products; with catalyst the peak is lower but start and end heights unchanged. Endothermic: curve from low reactants, up to EaE_a, down to a level higher than start.
  4. 4. Industrial chemists run the Haber process at 400400 - 500C500\,^\circ\text{C} even though higher temperatures reduce yield. Use collision theory and an economic argument to explain this compromise. (show answer)
    Answer
    Higher T speeds up the reaction (collision theory) but reduces equilibrium yield because the forward reaction is exothermic (Le Chatelier). The 400400 - 500C500\,^\circ\text{C} range is a compromise -- fast enough to produce useful amounts per hour while keeping yield economically worthwhile, often combined with an iron catalyst and high pressure.

Carbon cycle

Fluency · Reservoirs and processes

  1. 1. List the four main carbon reservoirs, in order from smallest to largest. (show answer)
    Answer
    Atmosphere < biosphere < hydrosphere (oceans) < lithosphere (rocks/fossil fuels).
  2. 2. Write the balanced equation for photosynthesis. (show answer)
    Answer
    6CO2+6H2OC6H12O6+6O26\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \to \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2.
  3. 3. Write the balanced equation for aerobic respiration. (show answer)
    Answer
    C6H12O6+6O26CO2+6H2O\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2 \to 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O}.
  4. 4. Name two natural processes that move carbon from the atmosphere to the biosphere. (show answer)
    Answer
    Photosynthesis; ocean dissolution (into phytoplankton).
  5. 5. Name two processes that move carbon from the biosphere to the atmosphere. (show answer)
    Answer
    Respiration; decomposition; combustion.
  6. 6. Give one process that moves carbon from the biosphere to the lithosphere. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fossilisation (dead organisms buried and compressed over millions of years); sedimentation of shells into limestone.

Fluency · Concepts

  1. 1. Why is the atmosphere considered sensitive to carbon emissions even though it is not the largest reservoir? (show answer)
    Answer
    It is the smallest reservoir, so small flux imbalances produce large percentage changes; it also controls the greenhouse effect directly.
  2. 2. In what chemical forms is carbon stored in the ocean? (show answer)
    Answer
    Dissolved CO2_2, carbonic acid (H2_2CO3_3), bicarbonate ion (HCO3_3^-), and carbonate ion (CO32_3^{2-}).
  3. 3. How does limestone store carbon? (Give the chemical formula.) (show answer)
    Answer
    As calcium carbonate, CaCO3_3, formed from the shells and skeletons of marine organisms.
  4. 4. Name three fossil fuels and explain briefly how each formed. (show answer)
    Answer
    Coal (from compressed plant matter in ancient swamps); oil (from compressed marine plankton and algae); natural gas (similar origin, deeper/hotter conditions favour methane).
  5. 5. What is the difference between a carbon flux and a carbon reservoir? (show answer)
    Answer
    A reservoir is a store of carbon; a flux is a flow of carbon per unit time between reservoirs.

Reasoning · Human impact

  1. 1. Explain how burning coal in a power station transfers carbon from one reservoir to another. (show answer)
    Answer
    Carbon stored in coal (lithosphere) is burned, producing CO2_2 that enters the atmosphere. A flux from lithosphere to atmosphere.
  2. 2. A forest is cleared and replaced by pasture. Describe two ways in which this increases atmospheric CO2_2. (show answer)
    Answer
    Burning trees releases their stored carbon as CO2_2; the cleared land stops absorbing CO2_2 through photosynthesis, so the atmospheric balance shifts upward.
  3. 3. Cement production releases CO2_2 in two ways -- through fuel burning and through the chemical reaction CaCO3CaO+CO2\text{CaCO}_3 \to \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2. Explain why cement is a significant climate concern. (show answer)
    Answer
    Cement production releases CO2_2 both from burning fuel in the kiln and directly from the decomposition of limestone -- even with clean energy, CaCO3_3 \to CaO + CO2_2 is unavoidable.
  4. 4. "Planting trees absorbs CO2_2." Explain why (a) this is true in the short term and (b) it is not a permanent solution. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Growing trees lock carbon into wood and soils. (b) Mature trees reach a steady state; if the forest burns or is cleared, carbon returns to the atmosphere. Reforestation buys time but does not remove carbon permanently.
  5. 5. Why are methane emissions from cattle and wetlands a concern even though CH4_4 lasts only about a decade in the atmosphere? (show answer)
    Answer
    CH4_4 is 25\sim 25 times more potent per molecule than CO2_2 at trapping heat over a century; large ongoing emissions keep concentrations high even though each molecule is short-lived.

Problem-solving · Apply and calculate

  1. 1. A car emits 2.32.3 kg CO2_2/L. If petrol costs $1.85/L and a driver does 1200012\,000 km at 88 L/100 km, calculate (a) annual fuel cost and (b) annual CO2_2 emissions. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fuel used: 12000×8100=96012\,000 \times \dfrac{8}{100} = 960 L. (a) Cost: 960×1.85=1776960 \times 1.85 = 1\,776 dollars. (b) CO2_2: 960×2.3=2208960 \times 2.3 = 2\,208 kg.
  2. 2. If global emissions are about 1010 Gt C/year and half stays in the atmosphere, how much carbon is added per year on average? Over a decade? (show answer)
    Answer
    55 Gt C/year; over a decade, 50\sim 50 Gt C added.
  3. 3. Pre-industrial atmospheric CO2_2 was 280280 ppm; today it is 420\sim 420 ppm. Calculate the percentage rise. (show answer)
    Answer
    420280280×100=50%\dfrac{420 - 280}{280} \times 100 = 50\%.
  4. 4. Ocean pH fell from 8.28.2 to 8.058.05. Find the percentage increase in H+^+ concentration. (Hint: pH scale is base 1010.) (show answer)
    Answer
    [H+][\text{H}^+] ratio =10(8.28.05)=100.151.41= 10^{(8.2 - 8.05)} = 10^{0.15} \approx 1.41. So about a 41%41\% increase.
  5. 5. One large tree absorbs about 2020 kg of CO2_2 per year. How many trees are needed to offset the 35003\,500 kg CO2_2/year of one car? (show answer)
    Answer
    350020=175\dfrac{3\,500}{20} = 175 trees per car.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Explain, step by step, why atmospheric CO2_2 continues to rise even though the ocean and land absorb about half of human emissions each year. Use the idea of a reservoir in (dis)equilibrium. (show answer)
    Answer
    Human emissions continually push the atmosphere away from equilibrium. Sinks (ocean, land) absorb a fraction but cannot keep pace because absorption depends on the difference from equilibrium -- even as that gap widens, the remaining 50%\sim 50\% of emissions accumulates, further shifting equilibrium upward.
  2. 2. The carbon cycle has natural negative feedbacks (e.g. warmer temperatures speed up silicate weathering, removing CO2_2) and positive feedbacks (e.g. warmer tundra releases stored methane). Discuss two of each and argue which are more significant on a human timescale. (show answer)
    Answer
    Negative: silicate weathering increases with temperature and removes CO2_2; more CO2_2 enhances plant growth which absorbs CO2_2 (limited by water/nutrients). Positive: warming melts permafrost, releasing methane; warmer oceans hold less dissolved CO2_2. On human timescales (decades), the positive feedbacks act faster than silicate weathering (millennia), making them more urgent.
  3. 3. A chemistry-minded student proposes solving climate change by growing vast algae blooms that capture CO2_2. Identify three practical obstacles, using ideas from carbon-cycle flux balance. (show answer)
    Answer
    Scale -- algae biomass would need to exceed current ocean phytoplankton many times over. Nutrients -- huge nitrogen and iron inputs would be required. Permanence -- dead algae decompose, returning CO2_2; only if they sink and are buried does the carbon leave the fast cycle.
  4. 4. Oil takes tens of millions of years to form but can be burned in seconds. Explain how this timescale mismatch is the crux of the anthropogenic climate problem. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fossil fuels accumulated over tens of millions of years; burning them in ~200 years releases that carbon ~10510^5 times faster than it was captured. Natural sinks have no capacity to absorb at that rate, which is why atmospheric CO2_2 keeps rising.

Space exploration

Fluency · Telescopes

  1. 1. Name one advantage of space-based telescopes over ground-based ones. (show answer)
    Answer
    No atmospheric blurring or absorption, so sharper images and access to wavelengths (X-ray, UV, infrared) that ground telescopes cannot detect.
  2. 2. Why must X-ray telescopes be placed in space? (show answer)
    Answer
    Earth's atmosphere absorbs X-rays completely; they must be observed above it.
  3. 3. What wavelength does the James Webb Space Telescope use? (show answer)
    Answer
    Infrared.
  4. 4. What kinds of objects do radio telescopes detect that optical ones cannot? (show answer)
    Answer
    Pulsars, radio galaxies, cool dust clouds that hide star formation, and distant quasars. Radio also penetrates dust.
  5. 5. Name one significant astronomical discovery made with a space telescope. (show answer)
    Answer
    Hubble Deep Field (distant galaxies); cosmic microwave background by WMAP and Planck; exoplanet atmospheres by Kepler and James Webb. (Any reasonable answer.)

Fluency · Rockets and orbits

  1. 1. State Newton's third law and explain how it applies to a rocket. (show answer)
    Answer
    For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. A rocket pushes hot exhaust gases backwards; the gases push the rocket forwards.
  2. 2. Roughly what orbital speed is needed at low Earth orbit? (show answer)
    Answer
    7.8\sim 7.8 km/s (about 2800028\,000 km/h).
  3. 3. What is a geostationary orbit, and why is its altitude fixed at 36000\sim 36\,000 km? (show answer)
    Answer
    An orbit with a 2424-hour period so the satellite appears fixed above one spot on the equator; altitude is fixed by the requirement that orbital period equals one Earth day.
  4. 4. Why does an astronaut on the ISS appear weightless even though gravity is strong there? (show answer)
    Answer
    Both the station and the astronauts are in continuous free-fall; no surface pushes up on the astronaut, so they feel weightless.
  5. 5. What is "escape velocity" and how does it differ from orbital velocity? (show answer)
    Answer
    Escape velocity is the minimum speed needed to leave Earth's gravity altogether (11.2\sim 11.2 km/s). Orbital velocity only needs to keep an object in free-fall around Earth.

Fluency · Missions and applications

  1. 1. Name the first human to orbit Earth and the year. (show answer)
    Answer
    Yuri Gagarin, 1961.
  2. 2. In which decade did the Apollo crewed lunar missions take place? (show answer)
    Answer
    1960s to early 1970s (1969 - 1972).
  3. 3. When did the ISS begin continuous crewed occupation? (show answer)
    Answer
    2000.
  4. 4. Name one weather satellite system and one GPS-style navigation system. (show answer)
    Answer
    Weather: GOES, Himawari (any). Navigation: GPS (US), Galileo (Europe), GLONASS (Russia), BeiDou (China).
  5. 5. Name two countries or agencies currently running crewed space programmes. (show answer)
    Answer
    USA (NASA, SpaceX), Russia (Roscosmos), China (CNSA). (Any two.)

Reasoning · Explain and justify

  1. 1. Explain why a rocket's fuel is 85%\sim 85\% of its launch mass. (show answer)
    Answer
    Reaching orbital speed (~7.87.8 km/s) requires so much Δv\Delta v that most of the launch mass must be propellant; additionally, the fuel itself must be lifted up through the lower atmosphere, requiring yet more fuel.
  2. 2. Why do most rockets carry both fuel and oxidiser, even though there is plenty of oxygen in the lower atmosphere? (show answer)
    Answer
    There is no air in space, so the engine must carry its own oxygen (or equivalent oxidiser) to burn the fuel.
  3. 3. Explain why a single GPS satellite is not enough to give your location -- the phone needs at least four. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each satellite gives only a sphere of possible positions. Three satellites intersect to two points; a fourth resolves ambiguity and corrects the receiver's clock.
  4. 4. Why is radio astronomy often done in remote locations (outback Australia, Atacama desert)? (show answer)
    Answer
    Human radio transmissions (mobile phones, Wi-Fi, TV) are radio noise that swamps faint astronomical sources. Remote sites minimise interference.
  5. 5. Compare the dangers of a Moon mission with a Mars mission. Which mission poses greater risks, and why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Mars: longer duration (~2-3 years), cosmic radiation outside Earth's magnetic field, much bigger distance, communication delay of 20\sim 20 minutes each way, no rescue possible. Far greater risks than a few-day Moon mission.

Problem-solving · Apply

  1. 1. A GPS satellite orbit altitude is 2020020\,200 km. Earth's radius is 6400\sim 6\,400 km. What is the satellite's distance from Earth's centre? If the satellite moves at 1400014\,000 km/h, how long does a signal take to reach you (use c=3.0×105c = 3.0 \times 10^5 km/s)? (show answer)
    Answer
    Distance from Earth's centre: 6400+20200=266006\,400 + 20\,200 = 26\,600 km. Signal time =202003.0×1050.067= \dfrac{20\,200}{3.0 \times 10^5} \approx 0.067 s (from satellite to ground, approximate).
  2. 2. The Apollo missions sent crews a distance of 384000\sim 384\,000 km to the Moon. At a travel speed of 5500\sim 5\,500 km/h (average), estimate the travel time in days. (show answer)
    Answer
    Time =384000550069.8= \dfrac{384\,000}{5\,500} \approx 69.8 h 2.9\approx 2.9 days. (Real Apollo missions took about 3 days.)
  3. 3. A geostationary satellite broadcasts a TV signal. The signal reaches the ground after 0.12\sim 0.12 s. Estimate the satellite altitude using d=ctd = ct. Does this match 3600036\,000 km? (show answer)
    Answer
    d=ct=3.0×105×0.12=36000d = ct = 3.0 \times 10^5 \times 0.12 = 36\,000 km. Matches the geostationary altitude.
  4. 4. Explain why Mars landing missions must launch during specific "windows" every 26\sim 26 months. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mars and Earth move on different orbits; a minimum-energy (Hohmann) transfer is only possible when the two planets are in the right relative positions, which happens every 26\sim 26 months.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. The rocket equation is Δv=veln(m0/mf)\Delta v = v_e \ln(m_0 / m_f). Explain what each symbol represents and why small increases in Δv\Delta v requirement (e.g. from LEO to the Moon) dramatically increase the initial mass m0m_0 for a fixed payload. (show answer)
    Answer
    Δv\Delta v: required velocity change; vev_e: exhaust velocity; m0m_0: initial mass (with fuel); mfm_f: final mass (after fuel burn). The ratio m0/mfm_0/m_f grows exponentially with Δv\Delta v, so a modest increase in required Δv\Delta v multiplies the fuel (and initial mass) needed.
  2. 2. A Mars-surface sample return mission has multiple spacecraft elements -- orbiter, lander, ascent vehicle, sample capsule. Explain why this staged approach is preferred over a single monolithic design, referencing the rocket equation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each stage can be optimised for its task and discarded when empty, reducing the mass that subsequent stages must accelerate. Monolithic designs carry the mass of empty tanks all the way, wasting fuel.
  3. 3. Argue for or against sending humans (rather than robots) to Mars. Give one scientific, one economic and one ethical reason for your position. (show answer)
    Answer
    Scientific: humans can adapt, improvise, and collect diverse samples faster than robots. Economic: robots cost orders of magnitude less and need no life support. Ethical: subjecting humans to unknown radiation and travel risks raises serious responsibility questions; arguments exist on both sides. (Any reasoned answer.)
  4. 4. A near-Earth asteroid is discovered on a collision course with Earth, impact due in 2020 years. Describe, in general terms, how current space technology could deflect it, and why early warning is crucial. (show answer)
    Answer
    A kinetic impactor or gravity tractor could be sent to nudge the asteroid's trajectory. Over many orbits, a tiny Δv\Delta v translates to a large miss distance; 2020 years of warning makes this feasible. Short warning would require much more energy and may be impossible.

The Universe & Big Bang

Fluency · Structure and scale

  1. 1. Arrange in order of size: moon, galaxy, star, solar system, planet, galaxy cluster. (show answer)
    Answer
    Moon << planet << star << solar system << galaxy << galaxy cluster.
  2. 2. How many stars are in the Milky Way, approximately? (show answer)
    Answer
    About 200200 billion.
  3. 3. Name the closest galaxy to our own that is comparable in size. (show answer)
    Answer
    Andromeda (M31).
  4. 4. Define a light-year in your own words. (show answer)
    Answer
    The distance that light travels in one year, about 9.59.5 trillion km.
  5. 5. What is a black hole? (show answer)
    Answer
    A region of space where gravity is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape.

Fluency · Big Bang evidence

  1. 1. Name three lines of evidence for the Big Bang. (show answer)
    Answer
    Redshift (Hubble's law); cosmic microwave background; abundance of light elements (H and He).
  2. 2. State Hubble's law in words and as a formula. (show answer)
    Answer
    The recession speed of a galaxy is proportional to its distance: v=H0dv = H_0 d.
  3. 3. What is the cosmic microwave background, and why is it important? (show answer)
    Answer
    The faint thermal radiation from when the universe first became transparent (380000\sim 380\,000 years after the Big Bang). It is direct evidence of the hot, dense early universe.
  4. 4. What percentage of the universe by mass is hydrogen? Helium? (show answer)
    Answer
    About 75%75\% hydrogen, 25%25\% helium by mass (of ordinary matter).
  5. 5. How old is the universe, approximately? (show answer)
    Answer
    About 13.813.8 billion years.

Fluency · Stars

  1. 1. What is the main energy source of a star? (show answer)
    Answer
    Nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium (and later heavier elements).
  2. 2. What is a main-sequence star? (show answer)
    Answer
    A star that is steadily fusing hydrogen to helium in its core -- the longest, most stable life stage.
  3. 3. Name the final state(s) of a star like our Sun. (show answer)
    Answer
    Red giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf.
  4. 4. Name the possible final states of a star much more massive than the Sun. (show answer)
    Answer
    Supernova followed by a neutron star or black hole.
  5. 5. Where are elements heavier than iron produced? (show answer)
    Answer
    In supernova explosions and neutron-star mergers.

Reasoning · Explain and interpret

  1. 1. Explain the Doppler effect with an everyday example (e.g. a passing ambulance) and link it to astronomical redshift. (show answer)
    Answer
    A passing ambulance's siren is higher pitched as it approaches and lower as it recedes. Similarly, light from receding galaxies is stretched to longer (redder) wavelengths. Galaxies all showing redshift indicates the universe is expanding.
  2. 2. Using Hubble's law, explain why the universe must have had a beginning. (show answer)
    Answer
    If all galaxies are moving apart, running the film backwards shows they were all together at one point in the past. Extrapolating gives a starting time about 13.813.8 Gyr ago.
  3. 3. Why does the CMB have a nearly uniform temperature across the sky? (show answer)
    Answer
    Before recombination, the universe was so dense it behaved like a uniform plasma; all regions had the same temperature. Inflation ironed out any variations, so the CMB is almost perfectly uniform except for tiny fluctuations.
  4. 4. Why is it said that "looking far away is looking back in time"? (show answer)
    Answer
    Light takes time to travel. The further away we look, the longer the light has been in transit, so we see objects as they were in the past.
  5. 5. Why are massive stars shorter-lived than low-mass stars, even though they contain more fuel? (show answer)
    Answer
    Massive stars burn their fuel much faster to counteract their stronger gravity; higher temperatures and pressures consume hydrogen in 10\sim 10 Myr vs the Sun's 10\sim 10 Gyr.

Problem-solving · Apply

  1. 1. A galaxy is measured to have a redshift corresponding to v=21000v = 21\,000 km/s. Using H0=70H_0 = 70 km/s/Mpc, find its distance in Mpc and in millions of light-years (11 Mpc 3.26\approx 3.26 million ly). (show answer)
    Answer
    d=2100070=300d = \dfrac{21\,000}{70} = 300 Mpc 978\approx 978 million ly.
  2. 2. The Andromeda galaxy is 2.5\sim 2.5 million light-years away. How long has the light been travelling? What does this tell you about what you see when you look at it? (show answer)
    Answer
    2.5\sim 2.5 million years. You are seeing Andromeda as it was 2.52.5 Myr ago.
  3. 3. The Sun will reach red-giant phase in 5\sim 5 Gyr. Express this in seconds using scientific notation. (show answer)
    Answer
    5×109 yr×3.156×107 s/yr1.58×10175 \times 10^9 \text{ yr} \times 3.156 \times 10^7 \text{ s/yr} \approx 1.58 \times 10^{17} s.
  4. 4. A supernova releases 1044\sim 10^{44} J of energy. Compare this with the Sun's total lifetime output of 1044\sim 10^{44} J. What does this tell you about supernovae? (show answer)
    Answer
    A supernova releases in seconds roughly the same energy the Sun emits over its entire 101010^{10}-year lifetime. Supernovae are extraordinarily energetic, visible across the universe.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. The cosmic microwave background has a temperature of 2.732.73 K today. In the early universe, photons were in equilibrium with plasma at 3000\sim 3\,000 K. Explain, using expansion and wavelength stretching, why the observed CMB temperature is so much lower. (show answer)
    Answer
    As the universe expands, photon wavelengths are stretched by the same factor. Going from 3000\sim 3\,000 K (emission) to 2.732.73 K (today) corresponds to a 1100\sim 1\,100-fold stretch -- the universe is now 11001\,100 times larger than at the epoch of recombination.
  2. 2. An astronomer measures redshift z=1.0z = 1.0 for a distant galaxy, meaning its observed wavelength is twice the rest wavelength. Explain why this implies the universe was half its current size when the light was emitted. (show answer)
    Answer
    z=1.0z = 1.0 means observed wavelength is twice emitted. Wavelength has been stretched by a factor 1+z=21 + z = 2, meaning space itself has doubled in scale since the light was emitted. So the universe was half its current size.
  3. 3. The Hubble constant has been measured by two independent methods (CMB + early universe, and nearby supernovae) giving slightly different values (67.467.4 vs 7373 km/s/Mpc). Why is this "Hubble tension" potentially a big deal? What might it imply about cosmology? (show answer)
    Answer
    The two methods probe different epochs (early universe vs nearby universe). If both are right, something in between (new physics, dark energy behaviour) may be missing from the standard model of cosmology.
  4. 4. Explain why life's building blocks (C, N, O, heavy elements) require a previous generation of stars to have existed. Why is it unlikely we are the first life in the universe based on this argument? (show answer)
    Answer
    Life requires carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium, iron -- none of which existed in the pristine Big Bang hydrogen/helium mix. Stars had to form, die, and seed the gas clouds with heavy elements before planets and life were possible. This pushes first-life possibilities back only once enough massive stars had exploded -- likely 1\sim 1 - 22 Gyr after the Big Bang.

Newton's laws of motion

Fluency · Concepts

  1. 1. State Newton's first law in your own words. (show answer)
    Answer
    An object continues at rest or at constant velocity unless an unbalanced force acts on it.
  2. 2. State Newton's second law as an equation, including units. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fnet=maF_{\text{net}} = ma, where FF is in newtons (N), mm in kilograms (kg), aa in m/s2^2.
  3. 3. What is the difference between mass and weight? (show answer)
    Answer
    Mass is the amount of matter (kg); weight is the gravitational force on that mass (N). Weight depends on gg; mass does not.
  4. 4. State Newton's third law. (show answer)
    Answer
    For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction; the forces act on two different objects.
  5. 5. Define inertia. (show answer)
    Answer
    The tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion; it depends on mass.

Fluency · Calculations with F = ma

  1. 1. A net force of 2020 N acts on a 44 kg object. Find the acceleration. (show answer)
    Answer
    a=204=5 m/s2a = \dfrac{20}{4} = 5 \text{ m/s}^2.
  2. 2. A 15001\,500 kg car accelerates at 2.5 m/s22.5 \text{ m/s}^2. What net force acts on it? (show answer)
    Answer
    F=1500×2.5=3750 NF = 1\,500 \times 2.5 = 3\,750 \text{ N}.
  3. 3. A ball is pushed with 5050 N and accelerates at 10 m/s210 \text{ m/s}^2. Find its mass. (show answer)
    Answer
    m=5010=5 kgm = \dfrac{50}{10} = 5 \text{ kg}.
  4. 4. Find the weight of a 9090 kg astronaut on Earth. (show answer)
    Answer
    W=90×9.8=882 NW = 90 \times 9.8 = 882 \text{ N}.
  5. 5. The weight of an object on Earth is 196196 N. What is its mass? (show answer)
    Answer
    m=1969.8=20 kgm = \dfrac{196}{9.8} = 20 \text{ kg}.
  6. 6. A toy car of mass 0.40.4 kg accelerates from rest to 22 m/s in 0.80.8 s. Find the net force on it. (show answer)
    Answer
    a=200.8=2.5 m/s2a = \dfrac{2 - 0}{0.8} = 2.5 \text{ m/s}^2. F=0.4×2.5=1 NF = 0.4 \times 2.5 = 1 \text{ N}.

Fluency · Third law and pairs

  1. 1. Give an everyday example of an action-reaction pair and identify both forces. (show answer)
    Answer
    Examples: jumping (legs push on ground; ground pushes back on legs). Bat hits ball (bat on ball; ball on bat).
  2. 2. When a swimmer pushes backwards on water, what pushes the swimmer forwards? (show answer)
    Answer
    The water pushes the swimmer forwards with an equal and opposite force.
  3. 3. Explain why walking does not work on frictionless ice. (show answer)
    Answer
    Friction is needed for the ground to push back on your foot; on frictionless ice, there is no reaction force to accelerate you forward.
  4. 4. A hammer hits a nail with 200200 N. What force does the nail exert on the hammer? (show answer)
    Answer
    200200 N (Newton's third law).
  5. 5. A horse pulls a cart. If the cart pulls back on the horse with equal force, how can the cart ever move? Explain briefly. (show answer)
    Answer
    The forces act on different objects. The horse's forward motion comes from the ground pushing back on the horse's hooves (larger than the cart's pull); that net forward force on the horse-cart system causes motion.

Reasoning · Free-body diagrams and net force

  1. 1. Draw a free-body diagram of a 1010 kg box being pushed across a floor with 4040 N, with 1515 N of friction. Calculate the acceleration. (show answer)
    Answer
    FBD: push 4040 N right, friction 1515 N left, normal up, weight down. Fnet=4015=25 NF_{\text{net}} = 40 - 15 = 25 \text{ N}. a=2510=2.5 m/s2a = \dfrac{25}{10} = 2.5 \text{ m/s}^2.
  2. 2. A parachutist of mass 8080 kg falls at a steady speed (terminal velocity). What is the air resistance on them? Justify using Newton's first law. (show answer)
    Answer
    At terminal velocity, acceleration is zero, so net force is zero. Air resistance =W=80×9.8=784 N= W = 80 \times 9.8 = 784 \text{ N} (upward).
  3. 3. A 55 kg fish is held on a line. It is lifted upward with an acceleration of 1 m/s21 \text{ m/s}^2. Find the tension in the line. (show answer)
    Answer
    Tension TW=maT - W = ma, so T=m(g+a)=5(9.8+1)=54 NT = m(g + a) = 5(9.8 + 1) = 54 \text{ N}.
  4. 4. A 20002\,000 kg truck needs to stop from 1515 m/s in 33 s. Calculate the braking force needed. (show answer)
    Answer
    a=0153=5 m/s2a = \dfrac{0 - 15}{3} = -5 \text{ m/s}^2. F=2000×5=10000 NF = 2\,000 \times 5 = 10\,000 \text{ N} (opposing motion).
  5. 5. A book of mass 1.21.2 kg is pushed horizontally across a table and accelerates at 0.5 m/s20.5 \text{ m/s}^2. The pushing force is 55 N. What is the friction force? (show answer)
    Answer
    Fnet=ma=1.2×0.5=0.6F_{\text{net}} = ma = 1.2 \times 0.5 = 0.6 N. Friction =50.6=4.4= 5 - 0.6 = 4.4 N.

Problem-solving · Real problems

  1. 1. A skydiver has a mass of 7070 kg. At one point in the fall, the air resistance is 400400 N. Find the skydiver's acceleration (use g=9.8 m/s2g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2). (show answer)
    Answer
    Weight =70×9.8=686= 70 \times 9.8 = 686 N. Net force =686400=286= 686 - 400 = 286 N downward. a=286704.1 m/s2a = \dfrac{286}{70} \approx 4.1 \text{ m/s}^2 downward.
  2. 2. Two students push a 3030 kg trolley from opposite directions: 5050 N one way and 6565 N the other. Find the acceleration and its direction. (show answer)
    Answer
    Net force =6550=15= 65 - 50 = 15 N (in direction of 6565 N push). a=1530=0.5 m/s2a = \dfrac{15}{30} = 0.5 \text{ m/s}^2.
  3. 3. A lift of mass 800800 kg accelerates upward at 1.5 m/s21.5 \text{ m/s}^2. Find the tension in the cable. (Hint: TW=maT - W = ma.) (show answer)
    Answer
    Weight =800×9.8=7840= 800 \times 9.8 = 7\,840 N. TW=maT - W = ma, so T=7840+800×1.5=9040T = 7\,840 + 800 \times 1.5 = 9\,040 N.
  4. 4. A 13001\,300 kg car goes from 00 to 2525 m/s in 88 s. Find the average net force. If friction and air resistance together average 500500 N, what engine thrust is needed? (show answer)
    Answer
    a=258=3.125 m/s2a = \dfrac{25}{8} = 3.125 \text{ m/s}^2. Net force =1300×3.125=4062.5= 1\,300 \times 3.125 = 4\,062.5 N. Thrust =4062.5+500=4562.5= 4\,062.5 + 500 = 4\,562.5 N.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. On the Moon, g=1.6 m/s2g = 1.6 \text{ m/s}^2. An astronaut's mass is 8080 kg. (a) Find their weight on the Moon and on Earth. (b) The astronaut throws a rock horizontally. Is it harder to get the rock moving on the Moon or on Earth? Justify using Newton's second law. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Moon: W=80×1.6=128W = 80 \times 1.6 = 128 N. Earth: W=80×9.8=784W = 80 \times 9.8 = 784 N. (b) Equally hard in terms of F=maF = ma -- horizontal acceleration depends on mass, not weight. The Moon's lower gravity only affects vertical forces like weight.
  2. 2. A 12001\,200 kg car is travelling at 3030 m/s and collides with a wall. (a) If the car stops in 0.10.1 s without a crumple zone, find the force on the driver (mass 7575 kg). (b) With crumple zone and airbags, the driver stops in 0.50.5 s. Find the new force. Comment on the practical importance. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) a=300.1=300 m/s2a = \dfrac{30}{0.1} = 300 \text{ m/s}^2. F=75×300=22500F = 75 \times 300 = 22\,500 N. (b) a=300.5=60 m/s2a = \dfrac{30}{0.5} = 60 \text{ m/s}^2. F=75×60=4500F = 75 \times 60 = 4\,500 N -- a fivefold reduction, crucial for survival.
  3. 3. Two masses are connected by a rope over a pulley (Atwood machine): 33 kg and 55 kg. Find the acceleration of the system and the tension in the rope (ignore pulley friction). Use g=9.8 m/s2g = 9.8 \text{ m/s}^2. (show answer)
    Answer
    Heavier mass (55 kg) accelerates down; lighter (33 kg) accelerates up. a=(53)×9.85+3=19.68=2.45 m/s2a = \dfrac{(5 - 3) \times 9.8}{5 + 3} = \dfrac{19.6}{8} = 2.45 \text{ m/s}^2. Tension: for lighter mass, Tmg=maT=3(9.8+2.45)=36.75T - mg = ma \Rightarrow T = 3(9.8 + 2.45) = 36.75 N.
  4. 4. A rocket of mass 20002\,000 kg is sitting on its launch pad. Its engines produce 2500025\,000 N of thrust. (a) Will it lift off? (b) What thrust is needed for an upward acceleration of 3 m/s23 \text{ m/s}^2? (show answer)
    Answer
    Rocket weight =2000×9.8=19600= 2\,000 \times 9.8 = 19\,600 N. (a) Thrust (2500025\,000 N) exceeds weight, so yes -- it lifts off with Fnet=2500019600=5400F_{\text{net}} = 25\,000 - 19\,600 = 5\,400 N giving a=2.7 m/s2a = 2.7 \text{ m/s}^2. (b) Thrust =m(g+a)=2000×(9.8+3)=25600= m(g + a) = 2\,000 \times (9.8 + 3) = 25\,600 N.

Science as a human endeavour

Fluency · How science works

  1. 1. List, in order, the main stages through which a new scientific finding becomes accepted. (show answer)
    Answer
    Research \to write-up \to submit to a journal \to peer review \to publication \to replication by other labs \to consensus.
  2. 2. What is peer review? Who does it? (show answer)
    Answer
    Independent experts evaluate a manuscript for methodology, statistical rigour, novelty and conclusions before publication. Reviewers are usually researchers in the same field.
  3. 3. Why is replication essential to science? (show answer)
    Answer
    Replication guards against chance findings, flukes, fraud, and mistakes. A result that can't be reproduced is treated as unreliable.
  4. 4. Give one example of a once-accepted scientific idea that was later overturned by better evidence. (show answer)
    Answer
    Examples: stomach ulcers (stress \to H. pylori); plate tectonics (static Earth \to moving plates); the "four humours" theory of disease; Newtonian absolute space (modified by relativity).
  5. 5. Define "scientific consensus." (show answer)
    Answer
    The shared, evidence-based position of most experts in a field, arrived at through repeated testing and peer review.

Fluency · Science and technology

  1. 1. Give one example of a technology that enabled new science. (show answer)
    Answer
    Electron microscope \to cellular ultrastructure; particle accelerators \to discovery of sub-atomic particles; space telescopes \to exoplanets. (Any reasonable example.)
  2. 2. Give one example of a scientific discovery that enabled new technology. (show answer)
    Answer
    Understanding of electromagnetism \to electric motors and generators; semiconductor physics \to computers; DNA structure \to genetic engineering. (Any reasonable example.)
  3. 3. How did genomic sequencing speed up COVID-19 vaccine development? (show answer)
    Answer
    The virus genome was sequenced in days and shared online. Scientists could design candidate vaccine mRNA without isolating the virus in every lab.
  4. 4. Name a tool invented in the last 5050 years that has changed biology research. (show answer)
    Answer
    PCR, DNA sequencers (especially next-generation), CRISPR, cryo-EM, high-throughput screening. (Any one.)
  5. 5. Name a tool invented in the last 5050 years that has changed astronomy. (show answer)
    Answer
    Hubble, James Webb, Kepler, adaptive optics, radio interferometers like ALMA. (Any one.)

Reasoning · Contested knowledge

  1. 1. Why can a single flawed paper have a long-lasting public impact (e.g. the retracted 1998 MMR-autism paper) even after being disproved? (show answer)
    Answer
    Media attention, social amplification, and confirmation bias make a striking claim stick. Retractions receive far less coverage than the original claim, so the false idea persists.
  2. 2. Why is "there is some debate among scientists" a common misleading framing in news coverage of climate change? (show answer)
    Answer
    The phrasing falsely suggests scientific uncertainty where there is overwhelming consensus on the physics. Genuine debate exists on policy and on details (like the exact rate of ice-sheet melt), not on the core claim.
  3. 3. Explain the difference between a minority opinion among scientists and a contested claim in the public sphere. (show answer)
    Answer
    A minority scientific opinion is held by credentialed researchers presenting evidence through peer review. A contested public claim may not have scientific support at all; the "controversy" may be manufactured by groups with non-scientific interests.
  4. 4. A YouTube video claims vaccines contain "toxins." How would you evaluate the claim? What sources would you consult? (show answer)
    Answer
    Check the source of the video, what "toxins" are specified (all vaccines contain some chemical ingredients, many in tiny doses); compare to authoritative sources (WHO, NHMRC, peer-reviewed studies); check whether the video's author is a qualified expert and cites evidence.
  5. 5. Explain why scientific consensus is not just a popularity vote. (show answer)
    Answer
    Consensus emerges from many independent researchers each examining the evidence. It is a measure of how well a claim holds up under repeated challenge, not a vote on preferred conclusions.

Problem-solving · Ethics and society

  1. 1. Research into geoengineering (e.g. injecting sulphate particles into the stratosphere to cool the planet) is controversial. Give two arguments for and two against this line of research. (show answer)
    Answer
    For: could buy time to reduce emissions; effective in preliminary models; cheap compared to mitigation. Against: unknown side effects on rainfall and ecosystems; governance -- who decides?; may discourage emission reduction (moral hazard). (Any two each.)
  2. 2. An AI system is trained to diagnose skin cancer and matches expert dermatologists' accuracy. List three ethical considerations before deploying it in a hospital. (show answer)
    Answer
    Bias in training data (may underperform on under-represented skin types); liability if AI errs; transparency of decisions; consent and patient trust; deskilling of dermatologists; privacy of medical data. (Any three.)
  3. 3. Indigenous fire-management practices have been shown to reduce bushfire severity. Why has Western science been slow to incorporate this knowledge? What would change? (show answer)
    Answer
    Cultural bias, lack of formal recording in Western-science formats, and historical exclusion. Change requires genuine partnerships, funding for Indigenous-led research, and recognising oral knowledge as valid evidence when supported by outcomes.
  4. 4. Pharmaceutical companies fund much of drug research. Explain one way this can bias the published evidence base, and one way regulators try to mitigate it. (show answer)
    Answer
    Bias: companies may suppress negative-result studies and fund research likely to show their drug favourably. Mitigations: mandatory pre-registration of clinical trials, open-data requirements, independent replication, disclosure of funding sources.
  5. 5. A scientist fabricates data to support their hypothesis. Even if their conclusions turn out to be right, why is this considered a serious offence? (show answer)
    Answer
    It corrupts the collective record; other scientists may waste years building on false results; the public loses trust in the field. Science depends on honesty because no one can personally check every result.

Reasoning · Analyse a claim

  1. 1. "A recent study found that drinking red wine is good for your heart." Identify five questions you would ask before believing this claim. (show answer)
    Answer
    Sample size? Was it peer-reviewed? Was it randomised and controlled? Who funded it? Were effects small or large? Were other variables controlled (diet, exercise)? Have other studies confirmed it? What population was studied? (Any five.)
  2. 2. "Scientists said eggs were bad for you, then good for you, then bad again. They have no idea." Write a paragraph explaining how this perception arises and what it gets wrong. (show answer)
    Answer
    Nutrition science relies on observational studies of large populations, which can produce varying results. Media often reports each new study as if it overturns the previous one; in reality, the body of evidence evolves slowly. What is missed: mainstream dietary advice has been stable for decades (vegetables good, processed foods bad). Individual studies are snapshots; consensus is the long-run trend.
  3. 3. Choose a current scientific issue (climate change, gene editing, AI safety, or another). Describe the scientific consensus, the main societal debates, and your view on how society should respond. (show answer)
    Answer
    Answers will vary; reasonable answers note the scientific consensus, the distinction between scientific and policy disagreements, and a considered view linking evidence to action.
  4. 4. Explain why some unfunded or low-prestige research areas (e.g. malaria, neglected tropical diseases) lag behind better-funded ones. Should governments correct this imbalance? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Research follows money; profit-driven funding favours issues affecting wealthy markets. Neglected-disease burden is high but paying capacity is low. Society-level correction (e.g. public funding of neglected-disease research, prize funds) is defensible on equity grounds.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. "The absence of evidence is not evidence of absence." Illustrate this with a scientific example (e.g. searching for life on Mars, detecting dark matter). Why is it sometimes misused in public debate? (show answer)
    Answer
    Example: searches for life on Mars have not yet found clear evidence, but we have explored only a tiny fraction of the planet and its subsurface. Failure to detect yet does not prove absence. In public debate the phrase is misused to defend claims with no supporting evidence ("you can't prove it isn't true"), which misunderstands burden of proof.
  2. 2. Scientific fraud has occurred in celebrated cases (Piltdown Man, Jan Hendrik Schön, Haruko Obokata, He Jiankui). Explain what each case has in common, how each was eventually exposed, and what lessons institutions have drawn. (show answer)
    Answer
    Common features: single high-profile researcher, pressure to publish, plausible fit with expectations, insufficient independent verification before acclaim. Each was exposed when others failed to replicate or inspected raw data. Lessons: strengthen peer review, encourage replication, require data sharing, protect whistleblowers.
  3. 3. Critics argue that publishing bias (positive results more likely to be published than negative) distorts the scientific record. Describe the problem and one proposed fix (e.g. pre-registration of studies, open data). (show answer)
    Answer
    Positive results get published; negative results often sit unpublished, inflating apparent effect sizes. Fix: pre-registration requires researchers to publish their planned methods and predictions before running the study, and journals commit to publishing regardless of outcome.
  4. 4. An emerging technology (e.g. CRISPR, autonomous AI, geoengineering) is being developed by private companies faster than regulators can respond. Discuss, with examples, how society should manage such asymmetries while preserving scientific progress. (show answer)
    Answer
    Answers will vary. Reasonable responses note adaptive regulation, international coordination, transparent safety testing, public engagement, and the need for regulators to build technical expertise proactively rather than reactively.