Year 9 Science | Practice mode

Practice

184 questions across 9 topics, drawn from every Practice and Challenge block in Year 9 science. Filter by topic or level, cap the count, shuffle, and start the timer when you want to time a session.

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Reproduction: sexual & asexual

Fluency · Terminology and basics

  1. 1. Define gamete, zygote, haploid, and diploid. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gamete: a haploid sex cell (sperm or egg). Zygote: the diploid cell formed when two gametes fuse. Haploid (nn): one set of chromosomes. Diploid (2n2n): two sets.
  2. 2. List three examples of asexual reproduction, naming the organism and the mode. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. (i) binary fission in E. coli; (ii) budding in hydra or yeast; (iii) vegetative runners in strawberry plants; (iv) spore formation in fungi.
  3. 3. State the chromosome number in a human (a) skin cell, (b) sperm, (c) zygote. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) 46 (diploid), (b) 23 (haploid), (c) 46 (diploid).
  4. 4. Name the male and female reproductive organs of a flower. (show answer)
    Answer
    Male: stamen (anther + filament). Female: carpel or pistil (stigma + style + ovary).
  5. 5. Which cell division produces gametes? Which produces body cells? (show answer)
    Answer
    Meiosis produces gametes. Mitosis produces body cells for growth and repair.
  6. 6. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of asexual reproduction. (show answer)
    Answer
    Advantages: fast, no mate needed, energy-efficient. Disadvantages: no genetic variation, vulnerable to disease and environmental change.

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. A mushroom releases millions of spores. Is this sexual or asexual reproduction? Justify. (show answer)
    Answer
    Fungal spores are produced by meiosis in the sexual stage of many fungi (sexual), but many fungi also release asexual spores formed by mitosis. Without more detail both answers are possible; most school contexts treat mushroom spores as products of sexual reproduction because meiosis forms them.
  2. 2. Explain why offspring of sexual reproduction are not identical to either parent. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each parent contributes half of the chromosomes; meiosis shuffles alleles via crossing over and random assortment, and fertilisation randomly pairs one sperm with one egg. The result is a unique combination.
  3. 3. Fruit growers prefer to propagate apple trees by grafting (asexual) rather than from seed. Give one reason why. (show answer)
    Answer
    Grafting keeps the desired characteristics (flavour, size, disease resistance) because the offspring are clones of the parent tree. Seed offspring would vary unpredictably.
  4. 4. A pond suddenly becomes contaminated with a new bacterium. Which population is more likely to survive: a pond full of genetically identical clones of a frog, or a pond with a variable frog population? Explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    The variable population -- genetic variation means some frogs are likely to have alleles that give resistance to the new bacterium; clones all have the same susceptibility.
  5. 5. Compare the roles of meiosis and fertilisation in maintaining a constant chromosome number across generations. (show answer)
    Answer
    Meiosis halves the chromosome number (2n -> n) when gametes form; fertilisation restores the diploid number (n + n -> 2n). Together they keep the species' chromosome number constant.

Problem-solving · Reasoning from data

  1. 1. A bacterium with generation time 30 minutes starts as a single cell. How many cells after 4 hours? Show your working. (show answer)
    Answer
    Number of divisions: 4 h / 0.5 h = 8. Population: 28=2562^8 = 256 cells.
  2. 2. A lizard species reproduces asexually in stable desert conditions but can reproduce sexually during droughts. Suggest why. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stable conditions favour fast asexual reproduction (exploit resources quickly). In droughts, variation from sexual reproduction increases the chance some offspring tolerate the stress.
  3. 3. Explain why sperm cells are produced in very large numbers while egg cells are produced in small numbers. (show answer)
    Answer
    Only one sperm fertilises the egg; sperm must compete and most are lost, so large numbers raise the chance of fertilisation. Eggs carry the resources for early development, which is costly, so fewer are made.
  4. 4. A plant breeder crosses two varieties to produce a new hybrid. Explain each of the following steps in terms of sexual reproduction: pollination, fertilisation, seed formation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Pollination transfers pollen (male gametes) from one variety's anther to the other's stigma. Fertilisation occurs when the pollen tube delivers a sperm nucleus to an egg inside the ovule, forming a zygote. The ovule develops into a seed that combines the parents' genes.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Some species (aphids, water fleas) switch between sexual and asexual reproduction during the year. Suggest an evolutionary explanation for this dual strategy. (show answer)
    Answer
    In good conditions, asexual reproduction rapidly increases population size. When conditions worsen (cold, food shortage), a switch to sexual reproduction produces varied offspring (often resting eggs) more likely to survive the challenge. This bet-hedging balances growth with resilience.
  2. 2. A honeybee queen produces fertilised eggs that become female workers (diploid) and unfertilised eggs that become male drones (haploid). Explain how this "haplodiploid" system is a mixture of sexual and asexual reproduction. (show answer)
    Answer
    Female workers come from fertilised eggs with two sets of chromosomes (sexual). Males come from unfertilised eggs that develop by parthenogenesis -- a form of asexual reproduction -- so drones have only the queen's genes.
  3. 3. Cloning a mammal (e.g. Dolly the sheep) bypasses meiosis and fertilisation. Predict two problems you might expect in a population produced entirely by cloning. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) No genetic variation, so the population is vulnerable to novel disease or environmental change. (ii) Accumulation of genetic errors cannot be masked by a second allele. Also early ageing issues (as observed in Dolly) and low genetic diversity reducing adaptability.
  4. 4. Gregor Mendel's pea experiments worked partly because pea flowers are usually self-pollinating. Explain why self-pollination still counts as sexual reproduction even though there is only one plant involved. (show answer)
    Answer
    Self-pollination still involves meiosis (producing pollen and eggs) and fertilisation (pollen + ovule), so offspring receive gametes from two gamete-producing events even if they come from the same plant. Variation is limited but genetic recombination still occurs.

Nervous & endocrine systems, homeostasis

Fluency · Structure and terminology

  1. 1. Label the three main parts of a neuron and describe the function of each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Dendrites: receive signals from other neurons. Cell body: contains the nucleus; integrates incoming signals. Axon: carries the nerve impulse away to the next cell (often insulated by myelin for speed).
  2. 2. Define synapse and explain how signals cross it. (show answer)
    Answer
    A synapse is the gap between two neurons. When an impulse arrives, neurotransmitters are released from vesicles, cross the gap, and bind to receptors on the next neuron, triggering a new impulse.
  3. 3. Name two endocrine glands and the main hormone released by each. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. pancreas - insulin (lowers blood glucose); thyroid - thyroxine (raises metabolic rate); adrenal - adrenaline (fight-or-flight); pituitary - growth hormone.
  4. 4. What is meant by homeostasis? Give two examples of variables it regulates. (show answer)
    Answer
    Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment. Examples: body temperature, blood glucose, blood pH, water/salt balance.
  5. 5. State the four components of a negative feedback loop. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stimulus, receptor, control centre, effector (with response).
  6. 6. Contrast the nervous and endocrine systems under the headings: speed, duration, message type. (show answer)
    Answer
    Nervous: fast (milliseconds), short-acting, electrical impulses along neurons. Endocrine: slow (seconds to days), long-acting, chemical hormones via blood.

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. Explain why a reflex action does not require conscious thought and why this is useful. (show answer)
    Answer
    Reflexes bypass the brain via the spinal cord, saving time. This minimises tissue damage in dangerous situations (hot surfaces, sharp objects).
  2. 2. Insulin is given as an injection rather than a tablet. Suggest why (think about what happens to proteins in the stomach). (show answer)
    Answer
    Insulin is a protein. Digestive enzymes in the stomach and small intestine would break it down before it could act. Injection bypasses the digestive system and delivers insulin directly to the blood.
  3. 3. A person with an overactive thyroid has high thyroxine. Predict two effects on the body. (show answer)
    Answer
    Possible effects: weight loss, rapid heart rate, feeling hot, anxiety, increased appetite, tremor -- all from elevated metabolism.
  4. 4. When frightened, heart rate rises, pupils dilate, and blood is redirected to muscles. Which hormone causes this, and from where is it released? (show answer)
    Answer
    Adrenaline, released by the adrenal glands (above the kidneys).
  5. 5. Describe how the body returns blood glucose to normal after eating a sugary snack. (show answer)
    Answer
    Rising glucose is detected by the pancreas; beta cells release insulin; liver and muscle cells take up glucose (stored as glycogen/fat); blood glucose returns to the set point.

Problem-solving · Feedback loops

  1. 1. Draw a labelled flowchart of the negative feedback loop that cools the body when it overheats. Include: stimulus, receptor, control centre, effector, response, set point. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stimulus: body temperature rises above 37C37^{\circ}\text{C}. Receptor: thermoreceptors in skin/hypothalamus. Control centre: hypothalamus. Effectors: skin blood vessels (vasodilate), sweat glands (sweat), behaviour (seek shade). Response: heat lost by radiation and evaporation; temperature returns to set point.
  2. 2. A patient with type 1 diabetes produces no insulin. Predict what happens to their blood glucose after a meal, and why injected insulin helps. (show answer)
    Answer
    Blood glucose rises and stays high (hyperglycaemia) because cells cannot take up glucose without insulin. Injected insulin replaces the missing hormone, allowing uptake and restoring normal levels.
  3. 3. Shivering generates heat. Explain how this is a response in a negative feedback loop, naming the stimulus and the effector. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stimulus: core temperature falls below set point. Receptors and hypothalamus detect the fall. Effector: skeletal muscles contract rapidly (shivering), generating heat through respiration. Response: temperature rises back to set point.
  4. 4. Compare the time scales of (a) catching a ball (nervous), (b) puberty (endocrine). Estimate how many orders of magnitude apart they are in seconds. (show answer)
    Answer
    Catching a ball 0.3\approx 0.3 s; puberty 2\approx 2-44 years 108\approx 10^{8} s. About 8-9 orders of magnitude apart.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. During childbirth, oxytocin release causes contractions, which trigger more oxytocin release. Identify this as positive or negative feedback and explain why it must eventually stop. (show answer)
    Answer
    Positive feedback -- the response amplifies the stimulus. It stops when the baby is delivered, which removes the pressure on the cervix that triggered oxytocin release.
  2. 2. Adrenaline can act in under a second even though it is a hormone. Propose one reason why it is faster than most hormones (hint: where it is released, and how close the adrenal glands are to blood vessels). (show answer)
    Answer
    The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys, so adrenaline enters a major blood vessel near the heart and is pumped rapidly throughout the body. It also acts on receptors already present on many cell types, giving rapid widespread effects.
  3. 3. A person drinks 2 L of water in 10 minutes. Describe how the kidneys and hormone ADH restore normal blood water content. Identify the stimulus, receptor, effector, and response. (show answer)
    Answer
    Stimulus: blood becomes too dilute (low solute concentration). Receptors: osmoreceptors in hypothalamus. Effector: pituitary reduces ADH release; kidneys reabsorb less water. Response: more dilute urine is produced, restoring normal blood water content.
  4. 4. Some medications block the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in synapses. Predict the effect on muscle activity, and explain why an overdose could be dangerous. (show answer)
    Answer
    Acetylcholine builds up in synapses, causing continued muscle stimulation -- twitching, cramping, weakness. Overdose can cause paralysis of respiratory muscles and death. (This is how some nerve agents and pesticides kill.)

Infectious & non-infectious diseases

Fluency · Types and terminology

  1. 1. Define infectious disease and non-infectious disease and give one example of each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Infectious: caused by a pathogen and can spread (e.g. influenza). Non-infectious: not caused by a pathogen, cannot spread (e.g. type 2 diabetes).
  2. 2. Name the five main types of pathogen and give one disease caused by each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Bacteria (tuberculosis), viruses (flu), fungi (tinea), protists (malaria), prions (CJD).
  3. 3. Why do antibiotics not work on viruses? (show answer)
    Answer
    Antibiotics target bacterial structures (cell walls, ribosomes) that viruses lack. Viruses replicate inside host cells using host machinery.
  4. 4. Describe two physical and two chemical barriers in innate immunity. (show answer)
    Answer
    Physical: skin, mucous membranes, cilia in airways, tears washing eyes. Chemical: stomach acid, lysozyme in tears/saliva, antimicrobial peptides.
  5. 5. Distinguish antigen and antibody. (show answer)
    Answer
    An antigen is a molecule (often on a pathogen surface) that the immune system recognises as foreign. An antibody is a Y-shaped protein produced by B-cells that binds to a specific antigen.
  6. 6. Define memory cell and explain its role in immunity. (show answer)
    Answer
    A memory cell is a long-lived lymphocyte formed after an infection or vaccination. If the same pathogen returns, memory cells mount a fast, strong response before illness develops.

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. A classmate has chickenpox. List three measures that could reduce the spread to others. (show answer)
    Answer
    Any three of: isolate the sick student; vaccinate those at risk; encourage hand washing; cover coughs and sneezes; wipe surfaces; keep non-immune students home.
  2. 2. Explain why vaccination is more effective than waiting for natural infection for diseases like measles. (show answer)
    Answer
    Vaccination gives immunity without the illness, avoiding the risks of severe disease, complications (pneumonia, encephalitis), and death. It also protects others via herd immunity.
  3. 3. In an outbreak of salmonella from a restaurant, public-health officials inspect the kitchen. Why not the staff's living quarters? Relate to the mode of transmission. (show answer)
    Answer
    Salmonella is a food-borne pathogen; contamination is expected in food preparation areas, not living quarters. Inspection targets the transmission route.
  4. 4. Why is it important to finish a full course of antibiotics even after you feel better? (show answer)
    Answer
    Stopping early leaves the hardiest bacteria alive; they can multiply and pass on resistance. Finishing the course kills remaining bacteria and reduces the chance of resistance.
  5. 5. Smoking causes both lung cancer (non-infectious) and increases risk of respiratory infections (infectious). Explain each mechanism briefly. (show answer)
    Answer
    Smoking damages lung cell DNA, triggering cancer (uncontrolled division). It also paralyses cilia and irritates airways, making bacterial/viral lung infection more likely.

Problem-solving · Data and decisions

  1. 1. A vaccine gives 95%95\% efficacy. In a community of 10 000 exposed people who are all vaccinated, roughly how many would you expect to still get sick? Why is this important for "herd immunity"? (show answer)
    Answer
    Expected number who still get sick: 5%×10000=5005\% \times 10\,000 = 500. Herd immunity relies on the other 9500 being protected, which blocks most transmission chains and indirectly protects the 500 plus anyone who cannot be vaccinated.
  2. 2. Malaria is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes. Evaluate three public-health interventions (draining still water, bed nets, indoor insecticide spraying) by linking each to a specific stage in the transmission cycle. (show answer)
    Answer
    Draining water: removes mosquito breeding sites (prevents vector population). Bed nets: prevent biting during peak mosquito activity (breaks transmission to human). Insecticide spraying: kills adult mosquitoes (reduces vector numbers and biting).
  3. 3. A 60-year-old has a family history of type 2 diabetes, a BMI of 31, and is sedentary. Suggest three evidence-based actions to lower their diabetes risk. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g.: lose weight through diet changes and portion control; increase physical activity to at least 150 min/week; reduce refined-sugar intake; regular blood-glucose monitoring with a doctor.
  4. 4. Explain why quarantine works for some diseases (measles, COVID) but not for others (heart disease). (show answer)
    Answer
    Quarantine interrupts person-to-person transmission, which infectious diseases need. Non-infectious diseases arise within an individual and do not spread, so isolation has no effect.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Antibiotic resistance arises when bacteria with natural variation survive antibiotic treatment and pass on resistance genes. Explain how overuse of antibiotics in humans and livestock accelerates this and propose two control measures. (show answer)
    Answer
    Selection pressure: every antibiotic course kills susceptible bacteria but allows resistant mutants to reproduce. Frequent, unnecessary use (viral infections, livestock growth promotion) intensifies selection, so resistance genes spread. Controls: prescribe antibiotics only when needed; finish full courses; restrict non-therapeutic use in animals.
  2. 2. Some viruses (influenza) mutate their surface antigens quickly, while others (measles) are much more stable. Relate this to why flu needs a new vaccine every year but measles does not. (show answer)
    Answer
    Flu's surface antigens (haemagglutinin, neuraminidase) mutate quickly, so memory cells from last year may not recognise this year's strain -- a new vaccine formulation is needed. Measles antigens barely change, so one vaccine gives decades of protection.
  3. 3. HIV targets T-helper cells of the immune system. Explain why this causes AIDS, and why people with untreated AIDS become vulnerable to infections that rarely harm healthy people. (show answer)
    Answer
    HIV destroys T-helper cells, which coordinate both B-cell and cytotoxic T-cell responses. Without them, adaptive immunity collapses, leaving the patient vulnerable to opportunistic infections (Pneumocystis pneumonia, Kaposi's sarcoma) that a healthy immune system normally suppresses.
  4. 4. Contrast "primary" and "secondary" immune responses in terms of speed, strength, and antibody levels. Sketch a rough graph of antibody concentration over time showing both responses. (show answer)
    Answer
    Primary response: slow (days to peak), low antibody level, mostly IgM. Secondary response: fast (hours to days), much higher antibody level, mostly IgG, due to memory cells. Sketch: low bump after first exposure; much higher, faster peak after second exposure.

Atomic model evolution & radioactivity

Fluency · Atoms and isotopes

  1. 1. List the atomic models in order and name the scientist most associated with each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Dalton (solid sphere) -> Thomson (plum pudding) -> Rutherford (nuclear) -> Bohr (shells) -> Schrodinger/quantum (orbitals).
  2. 2. Describe Rutherford's gold-foil experiment and the conclusion he drew. (show answer)
    Answer
    Alpha particles were fired at a thin gold foil. Most passed straight through, a few were deflected, and a very small fraction bounced back. Conclusion: the atom is mostly empty space with a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus at its centre.
  3. 3. For 1735Cl^{35}_{17}\text{Cl}, state the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. (show answer)
    Answer
    Protons 17, neutrons 3517=1835 - 17 = 18, electrons 17.
  4. 4. Define isotope. Give one example. (show answer)
    Answer
    Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same number of protons) with different numbers of neutrons. Example: carbon-12 and carbon-14.
  5. 5. Why do isotopes of the same element have the same chemistry? (show answer)
    Answer
    Chemistry depends on electrons (and their arrangement). Isotopes have the same electron configuration because they have the same number of protons and electrons.
  6. 6. Write the symbol for: (a) 6 protons, 7 neutrons; (b) 20 protons, 22 neutrons. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) 613C^{13}_{6}\text{C} (carbon-13), (b) 2042Ca^{42}_{20}\text{Ca} (calcium-42).

Fluency · Decay equations

  1. 1. Write the alpha decay equation for radium-226 (88226Ra^{226}_{88}\text{Ra}). (show answer)
    Answer
    88226Ra86222Rn+24α^{226}_{88}\text{Ra} \to \,^{222}_{86}\text{Rn} + \,^{4}_{2}\alpha.
  2. 2. Write the beta-minus decay equation for strontium-90 (3890Sr^{90}_{38}\text{Sr}). (show answer)
    Answer
    3890Sr3990Y+10β^{90}_{38}\text{Sr} \to \,^{90}_{39}\text{Y} + \,^{0}_{-1}\beta.
  3. 3. Americium-241 decays by alpha emission. Write the equation and name the daughter. (show answer)
    Answer
    95241Am93237Np+24α^{241}_{95}\text{Am} \to \,^{237}_{93}\text{Np} + \,^{4}_{2}\alpha. Daughter: neptunium-237.
  4. 4. State which radiation (alpha, beta, gamma) is (a) stopped by paper, (b) an electron, (c) a photon. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) alpha, (b) beta-minus (an electron emitted from the nucleus), (c) gamma (high-energy photon).
  5. 5. A nucleus loses 2 alpha and 1 beta particle. How do AA and ZZ change overall? (show answer)
    Answer
    Two alpha: AA drops by 8, ZZ drops by 4. One beta: ZZ rises by 1, AA unchanged. Overall: ΔA=8\Delta A = -8, ΔZ=3\Delta Z = -3.

Reasoning · Half-life

  1. 1. A sample starts with 1600 atoms. After 3 half-lives, how many remain? (show answer)
    Answer
    1600×(1/2)3=1600/8=2001600 \times (1/2)^3 = 1600 / 8 = 200 atoms.
  2. 2. Technetium-99m has half-life 6 hours. Starting with 80 mg, how much remains after 24 hours? (show answer)
    Answer
    Half-lives in 24 h: 24/6=424/6 = 4. Remaining: 80×(1/2)4=80/16=580 \times (1/2)^4 = 80/16 = 5 mg.
  3. 3. A sample has dropped to 116\dfrac{1}{16} of its original activity. How many half-lives have passed? (show answer)
    Answer
    (1/2)n=1/16=(1/2)4(1/2)^n = 1/16 = (1/2)^4, so 4 half-lives.
  4. 4. Cobalt-60 has half-life 5.27 years. Starting with 100 g, how much remains after 10.54 years? (show answer)
    Answer
    10.54/5.27=210.54 / 5.27 = 2 half-lives. Remaining: 100×(1/2)2=25100 \times (1/2)^2 = 25 g.
  5. 5. A patient is injected with 40 MBq of an isotope with half-life 2 hours. What is the activity after 6 hours? (show answer)
    Answer
    6/2=36/2 = 3 half-lives. Remaining activity: 40×(1/2)3=540 \times (1/2)^3 = 5 MBq.

Problem-solving · Applications and reasoning

  1. 1. Why is a long half-life (thousands of years) suitable for radioactive dating but unsuitable for medical imaging? (show answer)
    Answer
    Long half-lives work for dating because activity changes measurably over thousands/millions of years. For medical imaging the source should decay quickly after the scan so the patient is not exposed to radiation for long -- a short half-life (hours) is better.
  2. 2. An archaeologist finds that a bone contains 18\dfrac{1}{8} of the C-14 in a living bone. Estimate the age. (t1/2=5730t_{1/2} = 5730 y.) (show answer)
    Answer
    1/8=(1/2)31/8 = (1/2)^3, so 3 half-lives. Age =3×5730=17190= 3 \times 5730 = 17\,190 years.
  3. 3. Explain why gamma radiation is used in cancer radiotherapy but alpha sources are not used externally. (show answer)
    Answer
    Gamma rays penetrate tissue to reach tumours and can be aimed precisely. Alpha particles have very short range in tissue, so external alpha cannot reach tumours; their high ionising power also makes them dangerous inside the body but ineffective from outside.
  4. 4. Suggest a reason Bohr's model, though successful for hydrogen, failed to predict the spectra of larger atoms. (show answer)
    Answer
    Bohr's model assumed fixed circular orbits and a single electron. In multi-electron atoms, electron-electron repulsion and subshell structure (s, p, d) affect spectra in ways Bohr could not predict. The quantum model with orbitals handles these correctly.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Rutherford's team fired alpha particles at a thin gold foil. Most passed straight through, but a tiny fraction bounced back. Using this evidence, argue why the "plum pudding" model had to be replaced. (show answer)
    Answer
    If atoms were uniform positive "puddings", alpha particles (positive, fast) should have deflected only slightly. The back-scattering of a few shows there is a concentrated positive mass inside -- the nucleus. Most passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space. This contradicts the plum pudding and supports Rutherford's nuclear model.
  2. 2. A decay chain: 92238U^{238}_{92}\text{U} eventually becomes 82206Pb^{206}_{82}\text{Pb} via multiple alpha and beta decays. If the total change in AA is 32-32 and in ZZ is 10-10, how many alpha and how many beta-minus decays are involved? Show your working. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each alpha: ΔA=4\Delta A = -4, ΔZ=2\Delta Z = -2. Each beta: ΔA=0\Delta A = 0, ΔZ=+1\Delta Z = +1. Let aa alphas and bb betas. Then 4a=32a=84a = 32 \Rightarrow a = 8, and 2a+b=1016+b=10b=6-2a + b = -10 \Rightarrow -16 + b = -10 \Rightarrow b = 6. So 8 alpha and 6 beta-minus decays.
  3. 3. A patient receives a technetium-99m scan with activity 800 MBq at injection. If the effective half-life in the body is 4 hours, what activity remains after 16 hours? Comment on why Tc-99m is chosen for imaging. (show answer)
    Answer
    16/4=416/4 = 4 half-lives. Remaining: 800×(1/2)4=50800 \times (1/2)^4 = 50 MBq. Tc-99m has a short half-life (about 6 hours physically, shorter effectively), giving enough time for imaging but minimal radiation dose afterwards; it also emits gamma rays detectable outside the body.
  4. 4. The number NN of undecayed nuclei follows N=N0(1/2)t/t1/2N = N_0 (1/2)^{t/t_{1/2}}. Rearrange to express tt in terms of NN, N0N_0, and t1/2t_{1/2}, and use this to estimate the age of a rock in which NN0=0.3\dfrac{N}{N_0} = 0.3 for an isotope with half-life 1.3×1091.3 \times 10^9 years. (show answer)
    Answer
    N/N0=(1/2)t/t1/2t=t1/2log(N/N0)log(1/2)N/N_0 = (1/2)^{t/t_{1/2}} \Rightarrow t = t_{1/2} \cdot \dfrac{\log(N/N_0)}{\log(1/2)}. For N/N0=0.3N/N_0 = 0.3 and t1/2=1.3×109t_{1/2} = 1.3 \times 10^9 y: t=1.3×109×log0.3log0.5=1.3×109×1.7372.26×109t = 1.3 \times 10^9 \times \dfrac{\log 0.3}{\log 0.5} = 1.3 \times 10^9 \times 1.737 \approx 2.26 \times 10^9 years.

Global climate change & greenhouse effect

Fluency · Greenhouse basics

  1. 1. Describe the natural greenhouse effect in four steps. (show answer)
    Answer
    (i) Sunlight reaches Earth's surface. (ii) The warm surface emits infrared radiation. (iii) Greenhouse gas molecules absorb some of this infrared. (iv) They re-emit it in all directions, including back down, warming the lower atmosphere and surface.
  2. 2. Name four greenhouse gases and one human source for each. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. CO2_2 - burning fossil fuels; CH4_4 - livestock, gas leaks, rice paddies; N2_2O - fertiliser use; water vapour - evaporation; CFC/HFC - refrigeration/industrial.
  3. 3. What is the difference between the natural and enhanced greenhouse effects? (show answer)
    Answer
    The natural effect keeps Earth habitable (15C\sim 15^{\circ}\text{C} average). The enhanced effect is the extra warming caused by human-added greenhouse gases raising their atmospheric concentrations.
  4. 4. State four independent lines of evidence for climate change. (show answer)
    Answer
    Any four of: rising global temperature; ice core CO2_2 and temperature records; shrinking glaciers and sea ice; rising sea level; ocean acidification; shifts in species ranges and flowering times.
  5. 5. Explain what "ppm" means and give current atmospheric CO2_2 in ppm. (show answer)
    Answer
    "ppm" means parts per million, so 420 ppm means 420 molecules of CO2_2 in every million air molecules. Current level about 420 ppm.
  6. 6. Describe the ice-albedo feedback loop in one sentence. (show answer)
    Answer
    Warming melts ice/snow; darker exposed ocean or land absorbs more sunlight, causing further warming (positive feedback).

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. Why would Earth be about 18C-18^{\circ}\text{C} without any greenhouse effect? (show answer)
    Answer
    Without greenhouse gases, more of the infrared Earth emits would escape directly to space. The balance between absorbed solar energy and emitted infrared would then sit at a much colder surface temperature (around 18C-18^{\circ}\text{C}).
  2. 2. Explain why water vapour is a greenhouse gas but is not the main focus of mitigation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Water vapour concentration is controlled by temperature (warmer air holds more); it cannot be directly managed. It acts as a feedback, amplifying warming triggered by CO2_2 and other long-lived gases, which we can manage.
  3. 3. A politician argues that because CO2_2 is only 0.04% of the atmosphere, it cannot affect climate. Evaluate this argument. (show answer)
    Answer
    Weak argument. Small concentrations can still absorb strongly at specific infrared wavelengths. CO2_2's greenhouse effect is well measured in lab and field; doubling CO2_2 roughly doubles the added radiative forcing.
  4. 4. Describe how ice cores provide evidence of past atmospheric composition. (show answer)
    Answer
    Snowfall traps tiny air bubbles as it is buried and compressed into ice. Drilling cores and analysing the bubbles reveals CO2_2, methane, and isotope records going back hundreds of thousands of years.
  5. 5. Explain the difference between mitigation and adaptation, giving one example of each. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mitigation reduces the cause (e.g. switch to renewables). Adaptation adjusts to the impacts (e.g. build sea defences).

Problem-solving · Data and responses

  1. 1. Sea level is rising about 3.5 mm/year. Estimate the rise over 100 years and discuss implications for a coastal suburb with an average elevation of 1 m. (show answer)
    Answer
    3.5×100=3503.5 \times 100 = 350 mm =0.35= 0.35 m over 100 years. For a suburb at 1 m, a third of that elevation is lost, and storm surges plus high tides would already flood much of the area -- plus feedback from rapid ice-sheet loss could make the rise larger.
  2. 2. In 1960, atmospheric CO2_2 was about 317 ppm. Today it is about 420 ppm. Calculate the percentage increase over this period. (show answer)
    Answer
    Rise: 420317=103420 - 317 = 103 ppm. Percentage: 103317×10032.5%\dfrac{103}{317} \times 100 \approx 32.5\%.
  3. 3. A student installs rooftop solar. Categorise this as mitigation or adaptation and explain. (show answer)
    Answer
    Mitigation -- solar electricity replaces fossil-fuel generation, cutting CO2_2 emissions.
  4. 4. Rank these actions by likely CO2_2 impact and justify: (a) switching to LED lights, (b) flying less, (c) eating less red meat, (d) buying an electric vehicle powered by renewable electricity. (show answer)
    Answer
    Typical ranking (large to small): EV on renewables and flying less tend to be large; reducing red meat is sizable (methane, land use); LED lights give meaningful but smaller savings. Exact order depends on household baseline, but flying and vehicle fuel usually dominate.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Describe the permafrost-methane feedback loop and explain why scientists are concerned it could accelerate warming beyond current projections. (show answer)
    Answer
    Arctic permafrost contains huge quantities of organic carbon. As air warms, permafrost thaws; microbes decompose the organic matter, releasing CO2_2 and methane. These gases cause further warming and more thawing -- a positive feedback that could lock in warming even if human emissions were stopped.
  2. 2. Ocean acidification results from extra CO2_2 dissolving in seawater to form carbonic acid. Explain why this is a problem for shell-forming organisms and why it is called the "other CO2_2 problem". (show answer)
    Answer
    Dissolved CO2_2 + water -> carbonic acid, which lowers ocean pH and reduces carbonate ions needed for shells and coral skeletons. Shell-forming organisms (plankton, molluscs, corals) are weakened, threatening food webs. Called the "other CO2_2 problem" because acidification is distinct from, but caused by the same CO2_2 that drives, climate warming.
  3. 3. Some argue that natural climate variation (volcanoes, solar cycles, Milankovitch cycles) can explain current warming. Briefly outline why these cannot account for the post-1970 trend. (show answer)
    Answer
    Volcanoes cause short-term cooling from sulfate aerosols, not warming. Solar output has been roughly flat since 1970. Milankovitch cycles act on tens of thousands of years, not decades. None matches the timing or magnitude of the post-1970 rise, while CO2_2 forcing does.
  4. 4. Evaluate the claim: "Australia should adapt rather than mitigate because it is a small emitter." Discuss at least two counter-arguments. (show answer)
    Answer
    Counter-arguments: (i) Australia has high per-capita emissions, so "small" is misleading. (ii) Climate change is a collective action problem -- if every country said "we are small", global emissions never fall. (iii) Australia is particularly exposed to climate impacts (droughts, bushfires, Great Barrier Reef), so mitigation protects self-interest. (iv) Leadership and export economics -- clean-tech and renewables trade will favour early movers.

Waves & energy transfer through media

Fluency · Types and properties

  1. 1. Classify as transverse or longitudinal: (a) light, (b) sound, (c) water surface waves, (d) wave on a rope. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) transverse, (b) longitudinal, (c) mostly transverse (water surface moves up/down), (d) transverse.
  2. 2. Define amplitude, frequency, wavelength, and period. (show answer)
    Answer
    Amplitude: max displacement from equilibrium. Frequency: cycles per second (Hz). Wavelength: distance between consecutive crests (m). Period: time for one full cycle (s).
  3. 3. State the wave equation in symbols and in words. (show answer)
    Answer
    v=fλv = f \lambda: the speed of a wave equals its frequency multiplied by its wavelength.
  4. 4. List the regions of the EM spectrum in order of increasing frequency. (show answer)
    Answer
    Radio -> microwave -> infrared -> visible -> ultraviolet -> X-ray -> gamma.
  5. 5. State the three modes of energy transfer and which require matter. (show answer)
    Answer
    Conduction (needs matter, best in solids), convection (needs fluid), radiation (no medium needed).
  6. 6. Why can sound not travel through a vacuum? (show answer)
    Answer
    Sound is a mechanical wave needing particles to vibrate. Vacuum has (almost) no particles, so no vibration can propagate.

Fluency · Wave equation calculations

  1. 1. A wave has frequency 5050 Hz and wavelength 44 m. Find the speed. (show answer)
    Answer
    v=50×4=200v = 50 \times 4 = 200 m/s.
  2. 2. Find the wavelength of a 2.42.4 GHz Wi-Fi signal (c=3×108c = 3 \times 10^{8} m/s). (show answer)
    Answer
    λ=3×1082.4×109=0.125\lambda = \dfrac{3 \times 10^{8}}{2.4 \times 10^{9}} = 0.125 m =12.5= 12.5 cm.
  3. 3. A radio station broadcasts at wavelength 33 m. What is the frequency? (show answer)
    Answer
    f=3×1083=1×108f = \dfrac{3 \times 10^{8}}{3} = 1 \times 10^{8} Hz = 100 MHz.
  4. 4. A wave on a string travels at 1212 m/s with wavelength 0.40.4 m. Find the frequency and period. (show answer)
    Answer
    f=v/λ=12/0.4=30f = v/\lambda = 12/0.4 = 30 Hz. Period T=1/300.033T = 1/30 \approx 0.033 s.
  5. 5. Sound travels at 14801480 m/s in water. A whale's call has frequency 2020 Hz. Wavelength? (show answer)
    Answer
    λ=1480/20=74\lambda = 1480/20 = 74 m.
  6. 6. A red laser has wavelength 650650 nm. Find the frequency. (show answer)
    Answer
    f=3×108/(650×109)4.6×1014f = 3 \times 10^{8} / (650 \times 10^{-9}) \approx 4.6 \times 10^{14} Hz.

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. Explain why a low bass note reaches your ear from around a corner but a high treble note does not. (show answer)
    Answer
    Low frequency = long wavelength. Diffraction is strongest when wavelength is similar to or larger than the obstacle/gap. Bass has wavelengths of metres, comparable to door widths, so it diffracts around corners. Treble has wavelengths of centimetres and diffracts much less.
  2. 2. Give one everyday use of each of: microwaves, infrared, X-rays. (show answer)
    Answer
    Microwaves: mobile phone signals, microwave ovens, radar. Infrared: TV remotes, thermal imaging. X-rays: medical imaging, airport security.
  3. 3. Why is UV light harmful to skin while visible light is not? (show answer)
    Answer
    UV photons carry more energy per photon and can ionise atoms or damage DNA directly, causing sunburn and skin cancer. Visible photons have less energy and are mostly absorbed harmlessly.
  4. 4. Describe what happens to the speed, wavelength, and frequency of a light wave when it passes from air into water. (show answer)
    Answer
    Speed decreases (light is slower in water); wavelength decreases proportionally; frequency stays the same (set by the source).
  5. 5. A student claims sound travels faster in air than in steel because steel is heavier. Evaluate this claim. (show answer)
    Answer
    Incorrect. Sound travels faster in steel (rigid bonds transmit vibration quickly) than in air; "heavier" is the wrong factor -- stiffness matters more than density.

Problem-solving · Wave scenarios

  1. 1. You see lightning and hear thunder 6 seconds later. Estimate how far away the strike was (sound speed 343343 m/s). (show answer)
    Answer
    Distance =343×62060= 343 \times 6 \approx 2060 m or about 22 km.
  2. 2. A bat's ultrasonic call is 4040 kHz and travels at 343343 m/s. Calculate the wavelength, and suggest why bats use such a high frequency for echolocation. (show answer)
    Answer
    λ=343/(40000)=0.00858\lambda = 343 / (40\,000) = 0.00858 m 8.6\approx 8.6 mm. Short wavelength lets bats resolve small objects (insects) and focus the beam more tightly.
  3. 3. A swimming-pool lane rope is shaken to produce a wave at 22 Hz with wavelength 1.51.5 m. Find the wave speed. How long to travel the 2525 m pool? (show answer)
    Answer
    v=fλ=2×1.5=3v = f\lambda = 2 \times 1.5 = 3 m/s. Time =25/38.3= 25 / 3 \approx 8.3 s.
  4. 4. An AM radio station at 1.0×1061.0 \times 10^{6} Hz diffracts well around hills; an FM station at 1.0×1081.0 \times 10^{8} Hz does not. Explain using wavelength. (show answer)
    Answer
    AM wavelength =3×108/106=300= 3 \times 10^{8} / 10^{6} = 300 m, comparable to hills -- diffracts well. FM wavelength =3×108/108=3= 3 \times 10^{8} / 10^{8} = 3 m, much smaller than hills -- little diffraction, so FM needs line of sight.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Earthquakes produce both P-waves (longitudinal) and S-waves (transverse). S-waves cannot travel through the outer core. Explain how this is evidence that Earth's outer core is liquid. (show answer)
    Answer
    Transverse waves cannot propagate through fluids because fluids have no shear rigidity. Observations show a "shadow zone" where S-waves do not arrive, meaning they pass through a liquid layer. P-waves still arrive (longitudinal, slower in liquid). This is evidence that the outer core is liquid.
  2. 2. Ultrasound imaging sends pulses into the body at 3\sim 3 MHz and detects echoes. Sound speed in soft tissue is about 15401540 m/s. Calculate the wavelength and comment on the smallest feature that can reasonably be resolved. (show answer)
    Answer
    λ=1540/(3×106)5.1×104\lambda = 1540 / (3 \times 10^{6}) \approx 5.1 \times 10^{-4} m =0.51= 0.51 mm. Smallest resolvable feature is roughly the wavelength, so about 0.50.5 mm -- enough to see an unborn baby's bones and organs.
  3. 3. Two loudspeakers emit the same frequency sound waves. At certain points listeners hear a loud sound; at others almost silence. Explain using superposition (constructive and destructive interference). (show answer)
    Answer
    Where waves from the two speakers arrive in phase (crests coincide), amplitudes add -- loud (constructive interference). Where they arrive out of phase (crest meets trough), they cancel -- quiet (destructive interference). The pattern depends on the path-length difference relative to wavelength.
  4. 4. A radar station sends a pulse at 1010 GHz; the echo returns 1.2×1041.2 \times 10^{-4} s later. Find the distance to the target. State the two wave ideas you used (speed of EM waves, and distance-time). (show answer)
    Answer
    Pulse travels to target and back, total distance =c×t=3×108×1.2×104=3.6×104= c \times t = 3 \times 10^{8} \times 1.2 \times 10^{-4} = 3.6 \times 10^{4} m. Distance to target =1.8×104= 1.8 \times 10^{4} m =18= 18 km. Ideas used: EM waves travel at cc; distance = speed times time.

Electromagnetism & AC generation

Fluency · Basics

  1. 1. State the right-hand rule for a straight current-carrying wire. (show answer)
    Answer
    Point the right thumb in the direction of conventional current; the fingers curl in the direction of the magnetic field.
  2. 2. Describe the magnetic field (a) inside and (b) outside a solenoid. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Inside a solenoid: strong, nearly uniform field running along the axis. (b) Outside: weaker field that loops from one end to the other like a bar magnet.
  3. 3. Give three uses of electromagnets. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. MRI scanners, scrap-metal cranes, relays, doorbells, loudspeakers, electric motors.
  4. 4. State Faraday's law in words. (show answer)
    Answer
    A changing magnetic field through a coil induces a voltage (EMF) in that coil; if the circuit is closed, a current flows.
  5. 5. What is the mains frequency in Australia? (show answer)
    Answer
    5050 Hz.
  6. 6. Name three energy sources that drive AC generators in Australian power stations. (show answer)
    Answer
    Coal, natural gas, wind, hydro, nuclear (globally), biomass. Any three.

Reasoning · AC vs DC

  1. 1. List three differences between AC and DC. (show answer)
    Answer
    AC reverses direction (at 50 Hz here), DC does not. AC voltage is easy to change with transformers; DC needs electronic converters. AC is used for transmission and mains; DC is used in batteries and electronics.
  2. 2. Give one everyday example of each: AC source, DC source. (show answer)
    Answer
    AC: mains power, home outlets. DC: battery (torch, phone, car), solar panel.
  3. 3. Why is AC used for mains power but DC inside a laptop? (show answer)
    Answer
    AC can be stepped up to very high voltage with a transformer, reducing I2RI^2 R transmission losses. Electronics need stable low-voltage DC for logic circuits; wall adaptors rectify AC to DC.
  4. 4. Describe the function of an inverter in a home solar system. (show answer)
    Answer
    An inverter converts DC from solar panels or batteries into AC at mains voltage and frequency, so it can feed household appliances or be exported to the grid.
  5. 5. A car battery is DC. Why does a car still need an "alternator" to generate AC, which is then converted to DC? (show answer)
    Answer
    The alternator produces AC efficiently via rotation; its output is rectified (by diodes) to DC for battery charging and car electronics.

Problem-solving · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. Draw and label a simple AC generator, showing magnet, coil, slip rings, and brushes. Indicate the direction of the induced current at one moment. (show answer)
    Answer
    Labelled diagram: magnet N/S poles either side; rectangular coil with axis horizontal; slip rings on the axle; two brushes in contact with slip rings; leads to external circuit. Arrow on one side of the coil shows induced current direction at the instant drawn.
  2. 2. Describe the energy transformations in (a) a coal-fired power station and (b) a photovoltaic solar panel. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) Coal: chemical (coal) -> heat (combustion) -> kinetic (steam turbine) -> electrical (generator). (b) PV: light energy -> electrical (directly, via semiconductor junction).
  3. 3. A generator spins twice as fast. Describe two changes in the induced voltage. (show answer)
    Answer
    Voltage doubles (faster change of flux) and the frequency of the AC also doubles.
  4. 4. Explain why an electromagnet is more practical than a permanent magnet for a scrap-metal crane. (show answer)
    Answer
    An electromagnet can be switched on to pick up iron and switched off to drop it; a permanent magnet could not release the load.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. Transmission lines carry high-voltage AC (e.g. 500500 kV) rather than 230230 V. Power lost in a resistive line is Ploss=I2RP_{\text{loss}} = I^2 R. Explain, using this relation, why raising voltage (and lowering current for the same power transmitted) reduces losses. (show answer)
    Answer
    For a fixed power P=VIP = VI, raising VV allows II to be lower. Since Ploss=I2RP_{\text{loss}} = I^2 R depends on the square of current, halving current cuts losses to one-quarter. That is why transmission uses 275-500 kV, then transformers step voltage down for distribution and use.
  2. 2. A student spins a coil twice as fast and doubles the number of turns. Predict the effect on induced voltage, and justify by referring to the factors in Faraday's law. (show answer)
    Answer
    Induced voltage roughly doubles from faster rotation (greater rate of change of flux) and doubles again from twice the turns, so 4\approx 4 times greater. (Faraday's law: induced EMF NdΦ/dt\propto N \cdot d\Phi/dt.)
  3. 3. Describe the energy inefficiencies in a coal-fired power station at each stage (combustion, turbine, generator, transmission). Where are the largest losses, and why? (show answer)
    Answer
    Combustion converts only some chemical energy to useful heat (boiler losses, flue-gas losses). Steam turbine: thermodynamic limit -- a substantial share of heat must be dumped at the cold end (large). Generator: small resistive/mechanical losses. Transmission: I2RI^2 R losses and transformer losses, typically a few percent. Largest losses are in the heat-to-kinetic stage (Carnot limit) and waste heat at the condenser.
  4. 4. Compare a photovoltaic installation and a hydroelectric plant in terms of energy source, reliability (capacity factor), and environmental impact. (show answer)
    Answer
    PV: energy from sunlight; capacity factor roughly 15-25% (depends on weather and latitude); low operating impact but land use and manufacturing footprint. Hydro: energy from gravitational potential in water; high capacity factor (often 40-60%) and dispatchable; big ecological impact from dams, displacement, and habitat change.

Conservation of Energy & efficiency

Fluency · Conservation and efficiency

  1. 1. State the Law of Conservation of Energy. (show answer)
    Answer
    Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another. In a closed system the total energy stays constant.
  2. 2. Define useful energy, wasted energy, and efficiency. (show answer)
    Answer
    Useful energy: output that fulfils the device's purpose. Wasted energy: output in forms we cannot or do not use (usually heat, sometimes sound). Efficiency: the fraction of input energy that becomes useful output.
  3. 3. Calculate efficiency for each: (a) 200 J in, 150 J useful out; (b) 400 kJ in, 80 kJ wasted. (show answer)
    Answer
    (a) η=150/200×100=75%\eta = 150/200 \times 100 = 75\%. (b) Useful =40080=320= 400 - 80 = 320 kJ. η=320/400×100=80%\eta = 320/400 \times 100 = 80\%.
  4. 4. A kettle uses 250250 kJ and transfers 210210 kJ to the water. Find efficiency. (show answer)
    Answer
    η=210/250×100=84%\eta = 210/250 \times 100 = 84\%.
  5. 5. Sketch a Sankey diagram for a hairdryer that is 70%70\% efficient (useful = heated air flow; wasted = motor heat + sound). (show answer)
    Answer
    Sankey: input band (say 100 J) splits into useful (70 J heated air flow) and wasted (30 J heat + sound). Widths must add to input width.
  6. 6. Give one example each of: chemical -> electrical; electrical -> light; kinetic -> electrical. (show answer)
    Answer
    Chemical -> electrical: battery. Electrical -> light: LED. Kinetic -> electrical: generator (wind turbine or hydro).

Reasoning · Apply the ideas

  1. 1. A 6060 W incandescent bulb produces about 33 W of light. An LED bulb produces 66 W of light from 1010 W input. Compare efficiencies and comment on energy saving over a year. (show answer)
    Answer
    Incandescent: η=3/60=5%\eta = 3/60 = 5\%. LED: η=6/10=60%\eta = 6/10 = 60\%. LED gives twice the light for one-sixth the electricity, so the yearly saving at 4 h/day is about (6010)×4×365=73000(60 - 10) \times 4 \times 365 = 73\,000 Wh =73= 73 kWh per bulb. Across a house that is a large reduction in bill and emissions.
  2. 2. Explain why a car engine's exhaust and radiator are both important to consider when calculating efficiency. (show answer)
    Answer
    The engine's wasted energy leaves the car mainly as hot exhaust gas and heat carried away by the radiator; these are the largest loss paths, so any calculation of efficiency must include them to be realistic.
  3. 3. A coal-fired station is 40%40\% efficient at converting chemical energy to electrical energy. If 10001000 MJ of coal is burned, how much electricity is produced, and where does the rest go? (show answer)
    Answer
    Electricity =0.40×1000=400= 0.40 \times 1000 = 400 MJ. The rest (600600 MJ) is mostly waste heat lost at the boiler and cooling towers, plus smaller losses at the turbine and generator.
  4. 4. A bouncing ball loses height with each bounce. Explain this in terms of energy conservation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Each bounce loses some kinetic energy to heat, sound, and air resistance. That energy is not returned, so kinetic energy on the way up is smaller each time, reducing the bounce height. Total energy is still conserved (the lost energy warms the ball, floor, and air).
  5. 5. Why does rubbing hands together produce heat, and what energy transformation is this? (show answer)
    Answer
    Kinetic energy -> heat (via friction between skin surfaces). Some sound is also produced.

Problem-solving · Apply conservation

  1. 1. A lift motor uses 55 kWh of electricity to lift a 10001000 kg load 2020 m. If gravitational PE gained is 1000×9.8×20=1960001000 \times 9.8 \times 20 = 196\,000 J, calculate the efficiency. (Convert 55 kWh to joules first: 5×3.6×106=1.8×1075 \times 3.6 \times 10^{6} = 1.8 \times 10^{7} J.) (show answer)
    Answer
    η=196000/1.8×107×1001.09%\eta = 196\,000 / 1.8 \times 10^{7} \times 100 \approx 1.09\%. That is low because 5 kWh is a huge amount of energy for a 20 m lift -- probably this is a single lift of many, or most energy is elsewhere. (Or the numbers represent all the runs over an hour, not one.)
  2. 2. A solar panel receives 10001000 J of sunlight per second on its surface. Its electrical output is 180180 W. Find its efficiency. (show answer)
    Answer
    η=180/1000×100=18%\eta = 180/1000 \times 100 = 18\%.
  3. 3. A fan heater draws 20002000 W. Useful heat output is 18001800 W. Where is the other 200200 W going? What efficiency is this? (show answer)
    Answer
    The other 200200 W is lost as heat in the motor and casing, and some sound. η=1800/2000=90%\eta = 1800/2000 = 90\%.
  4. 4. A power station generates 500500 MW of electricity. 88 MW is lost as heat in transmission lines. Transmission efficiency? (show answer)
    Answer
    η=(5008)/500×100=492/500×100=98.4%\eta = (500 - 8)/500 \times 100 = 492/500 \times 100 = 98.4\%.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A coal-fired power station has efficiency 40%40\% for electricity generation, and transmission is 92%92\% efficient. An appliance using this electricity has efficiency 70%70\%. Calculate the overall efficiency from fuel to useful output and comment on the result. (show answer)
    Answer
    Overall =0.40×0.92×0.70=0.2576= 0.40 \times 0.92 \times 0.70 = 0.2576, or about 25.8%25.8\%. Only about a quarter of the coal's chemical energy becomes useful output; most is lost as heat at the power station, with smaller losses in transmission and in the appliance.
  2. 2. A domestic heat pump is rated with a coefficient of performance (COP) of 44: for every 11 J of electrical work it moves 44 J of heat into the house. Explain why this does not violate the Law of Conservation of Energy. (show answer)
    Answer
    A heat pump does not create energy; it moves heat from a colder outside to a warmer inside using electrical work. Total energy into the house = electrical input + heat taken from outside = heat delivered. Conservation holds; COP just describes the ratio of heat delivered to work input.
  3. 3. A student argues that we should use incandescent bulbs in winter because the "wasted" heat warms the house anyway. Evaluate this argument, including at least one counter-point (think about the cost of electricity vs gas heat, and the path the bulb's photons take). (show answer)
    Answer
    Counter-points: (i) Electricity is often more expensive per joule than gas heat, so using electric bulbs for heating is wasteful financially. (ii) The light that leaves through windows is not returned; part of the energy leaves the house rather than warming it. (iii) In summer the heat is unwanted and may drive more air-conditioning. (iv) Switching to LEDs + efficient heating saves more energy and emissions overall.
  4. 4. Draw a Sankey diagram for a complete chain: coal -> power station -> transmission -> LED bulb. Use the efficiencies 40%, 92%, 50% at each stage. What fraction of the original coal energy becomes visible light? (show answer)
    Answer
    Overall =0.40×0.92×0.50=0.184= 0.40 \times 0.92 \times 0.50 = 0.184 or 18.4%18.4\% of the original coal energy becomes visible light. Sankey: coal 100 -> power station (40 to electricity, 60 waste heat) -> transmission (36.8 delivered, 3.2 line losses) -> LED bulb (18.4 light, 18.4 heat).

Scientific inquiry: variables, validity, argument

Fluency · Question, hypothesis, variables

  1. 1. Write an investigable question about how temperature affects the dissolving rate of salt. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. "Does increasing water temperature reduce the time for 55 g of salt to dissolve in 100100 mL of water?"
  2. 2. Write a hypothesis for the above question in "if ... then ... because ..." form. (show answer)
    Answer
    "If water temperature is increased, then the time for salt to dissolve will decrease, because particles move faster at higher temperature, giving more frequent collisions with the solvent."
  3. 3. For a test of "does fertiliser amount change tomato yield?": identify the IV, DV, and three controlled variables. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: mass of fertiliser per plant. DV: tomato yield (mass or count of fruit). Controlled: variety of tomato, size of pot, amount of water, light exposure, soil type, duration of experiment.
  4. 4. Explain the difference between an IV and a DV. (show answer)
    Answer
    The IV is the variable the experimenter changes; the DV is what is measured and is expected to respond to changes in the IV.
  5. 5. State what a "control group" is and give an example. (show answer)
    Answer
    A control group is a comparison group that does not receive the treatment/change, showing what happens without the IV. Example: placebo group in a drug trial.

Reasoning · Validity, reliability, accuracy

  1. 1. Define validity, reliability, and accuracy in your own words. (show answer)
    Answer
    Validity: the experiment measures what it claims to measure. Reliability: repeated measurements give consistent results. Accuracy: measurements are close to the true value.
  2. 2. A thermometer reads 102C102^{\circ}\text{C} in boiling water at sea level (true value 100C100^{\circ}\text{C}). Classify the error. (show answer)
    Answer
    Systematic error -- off by a consistent +2C+2^{\circ}\text{C}.
  3. 3. A stopwatch gives times of 12.40 s, 12.41 s, 12.39 s, 12.42 s. Classify: reliable? accurate? valid? (show answer)
    Answer
    Reliable (very consistent), reasonably accurate if the true time is near 12.4012.40 s. Validity depends on whether timing actually measures what we want.
  4. 4. Give an example of an experiment that is reliable but not valid. (show answer)
    Answer
    E.g. using a cheap bathroom scale that always reads 22 kg too low -- gives repeatable (reliable) but inaccurate readings; still not valid for a "true weight" study.
  5. 5. Why does repeating measurements improve reliability but not necessarily accuracy? (show answer)
    Answer
    Repeating averages out random fluctuations, improving reliability. It does not fix systematic errors, which push every reading the same way.

Problem-solving · Designing and evaluating

  1. 1. A student investigates whether a ball dropped from higher bounces more. Design a plan: IV, DV, three controlled variables, what data to collect, and how to analyse. (show answer)
    Answer
    IV: drop height (e.g. 25, 50, 75, 100, 125 cm). DV: bounce height (cm) from the floor to top of first bounce. Controlled: same ball, same surface, same ball release technique (no push), same temperature, same measurer. Data: measure bounce height 3 times per drop height; average. Analysis: plot bounce height (y) vs drop height (x); look for a linear trend and comment on outliers.
  2. 2. Critique this design: "I tested a new fertiliser on my tomato plant. It grew taller than my neighbour's tomato. Therefore the fertiliser works." List three issues. (show answer)
    Answer
    Issues: (i) n=1n = 1; no replication; (ii) no control (different plants, different conditions -- uncontrolled confounds); (iii) a single outcome (taller) doesn't prove the fertiliser is responsible; (iv) no randomisation; (v) no measure of variability.
  3. 3. A company funds a study concluding its sugary drink is "not linked to weight gain". Suggest two potential sources of bias and how to address them. (show answer)
    Answer
    Bias sources: (i) selective reporting of favourable results; (ii) study design choices favouring the sponsor (short duration, specific group). Address by independent replication, pre-registering the study, and full public data access.
  4. 4. A class of 30 students has 28 results between 2.0 and 2.5 for an experiment. Two students report results of 8.7. Discuss whether to include or exclude the outliers and how to decide. (show answer)
    Answer
    Investigate first: were the two outliers from a procedural mistake (e.g. different method)? If yes, exclude and state this. If there's no mistake, keep them but report them -- they may reflect real variation. Use a consistent rule (e.g. outlier test) rather than discarding data to make the result look cleaner.

Reasoning · Arguments from data

  1. 1. A graph shows ice-cream sales and drowning rates rising together through summer. A headline reads "Ice cream causes drownings." Evaluate this causal claim (hint: think about a common cause). (show answer)
    Answer
    Correlation does not imply causation. Both ice-cream sales and drownings rise in summer because of higher temperatures and more swimming; the common cause is hot weather, not ice cream.
  2. 2. Data: reaction time (ms) after caffeine dose (mg): 0 -> 280, 50 -> 260, 100 -> 250, 150 -> 245, 200 -> 260. Describe the pattern and the most plausible interpretation. (show answer)
    Answer
    Reaction time falls from 280 ms (0 mg) to 245 ms (150 mg), showing caffeine shortens reaction time up to a point. At 200 mg it rises again (260 ms), suggesting a "too much" effect (jitteriness, over-arousal). Plausible interpretation: moderate doses improve alertness; high doses may impair.
  3. 3. Write a three-part argument (claim, evidence, reasoning) for: "a LED bulb is more efficient than an incandescent bulb", using typical figures from your topic knowledge. (show answer)
    Answer
    Claim: LED bulbs are more efficient than incandescents. Evidence: typical LED outputs 60%\sim 60\% of input as visible light vs 5%\sim 5\% for incandescents; LEDs use 1010 W to produce about the same light as a 6060 W incandescent. Reasoning: both convert electrical input into light and heat; LEDs use semiconductor electroluminescence, which diverts little energy to heat, while incandescents rely on a heated filament where most energy becomes heat. Therefore, for the same useful light, LEDs use far less electrical input, which is the definition of higher efficiency.

Reasoning · Harder reasoning

  1. 1. A medical trial uses "double-blind" design: neither patient nor doctor knows who got the drug or placebo. Explain why this controls bias, and what would go wrong if either side knew. (show answer)
    Answer
    In a double-blind trial, neither side can consciously or unconsciously influence outcomes. If doctors knew, they might treat the drug group differently (more attentive care, interpret symptoms differently); if patients knew, the placebo effect and reporting would differ. Double-blinding removes both channels of bias.
  2. 2. Two studies disagree about the effect of a new diet. Study A: n=15n = 15, 1212 weeks, self-reported weight. Study B: n=500n = 500, 66 months, weighed by researchers. Using the ideas of validity, reliability, and sample size, argue which result deserves more weight. (show answer)
    Answer
    Study B deserves more weight: much larger nn (better reliability), researcher-measured weight (more accurate and valid than self-report), longer duration (captures real effects). Study A's small sample and self-reported DV make both reliability and validity weaker.
  3. 3. A student claims their experiment "proves" their hypothesis. Explain why science never "proves" a hypothesis, only supports or falsifies it -- and why that makes science more trustworthy, not less. (show answer)
    Answer
    "Proof" in everyday use means certainty. In science, no finite set of observations can establish certainty -- there may always be a future experiment that contradicts a theory. Science "supports" hypotheses tentatively and is open to revision. Paradoxically, this is a strength: self-correction is why science advances, while dogma that claims proof cannot be improved.
  4. 4. A graph of test scores vs hours studied shows scatter but a clear upward trend. Write a balanced conclusion that distinguishes correlation from causation and identifies at least one confounding variable. (show answer)
    Answer
    Claim: higher hours of study are associated with higher test scores. Evidence: positive trend on the graph. Reasoning: more time on content could plausibly improve retention and skill. But correlation is not causation; confounding variables (e.g. motivation, sleep, subject aptitude, prior knowledge) might cause both more study and better scores. A controlled experiment or statistical control is needed to distinguish the effect of study time itself.